This is a pretty basic question, but I haven't seen it dealt with in the texts that I have used. In the proof where it is shown that the product of a spinor and its Dirac conjugate is Lorentz invariant, it is assumed that the gamma matrix [itex]\gamma^0[/itex] is invariant under a Lorentz transformation. I have generally seen that each of the gamma matrices are treated as Lorentz invariant, but I have never seen the justification for this. Why are the gamma matrices Lorentz invariant?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Question about Lorentz Invariance and Gamma Matrices

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