Implied Precision: Is It 0.005 or 0.01?

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The discussion centers on the implied precision of measurements, specifically whether it should be considered as half of the least significant figure or as "1" in that position. Participants argue that the type of measuring instrument influences this determination, with analog instruments suggesting a precision of +/- 0.005 m for a measurement like 3.28 m, while digital instruments might imply a precision of +/- 0.01 m. There is a contention that the fundamental measurement's imprecision is independent of how results are presented, emphasizing that all measurements, even from digital devices, reflect analog characteristics. Ultimately, the consensus leans towards assuming half of the smallest division for implied precision. Understanding the nature of the measuring instrument is crucial for accurate interpretation of measurement precision.
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Homework Statement


Some sources say the implied precision of a measurement is half of the least significant figure, while others say the implied precision is "1" in the place of the least significant figure.

For example, a length is measured as 3.28 m. According to some sources, the implied precision is 0.005 m, while according to other sources, the implied precision is 0.01 m. Which is correct and why?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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What do you think and why?
 
phinds said:
What do you think and why?
I think it depends on the measuring instrument. If it's analog, half of the smallest division; if it's digital, the smallest division.

So in this case, if it's a measured length, I'd assume the instrument is analog and the implied precision would be +/- 0.005 m.

Does this sound right?
 
Doesn't sound right to me. The imprecision does not seem to me to be related in any way to how the measurement is PRESENTED. Things like temperature, pressure, and so forth are analog in nature and are of necessity measured as analog things. How the result is then presented has nothing to do with the imprecision in the fundamental measurement.

Yes, you can have instruments that directly produce digital results but that does not change the fact that they are measuring analog characteristics and the question is, what is the imprecision of when they change from one measurement to their next digital increment. THAT is still analog.
 
phinds said:
Doesn't sound right to me. The imprecision does not seem to me to be related in any way to how the measurement is PRESENTED. Things like temperature, pressure, and so forth are analog in nature and are of necessity measured as analog things. How the result is then presented has nothing to do with the imprecision in the fundamental measurement.

Yes, you can have instruments that directly produce digital results but that does not change the fact that they are measuring analog characteristics and the question is, what is the imprecision of when they change from one measurement to their next digital increment. THAT is still analog.
So I should always assume half of the smallest division?
 
emeraldskye177 said:
So I should always assume half of the smallest division?
That's what I always do.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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