Improper integral Convergence theorem

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of improper integrals, specifically examining the relationship between the convergence of a series of integrals and the convergence of the integral of a continuous and positive function over an infinite interval.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of a convergent series of integrals and question whether this guarantees the convergence of the integral from 0 to infinity. Some participants attempt to construct proofs while others suggest counterexamples.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing examination of the original proof attempts, with some participants recognizing flaws in their reasoning. Counterexamples have been proposed, and the discussion reflects a mix of attempts at formal proof and conceptual clarification.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the function being continuous and positive, which is central to the problem's requirements. There is also mention of the Cauchy Criterion as a method of assessing convergence.

estro
Messages
239
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



f(x) is a continuous and positive function when [tex]x\in[0,\infty)[/tex]. (#1)

[tex]x_n[/tex] is a monotonic increasing sequence, [tex]x_0=0[/tex] [tex],x_n \rightarrow \infty[/tex]. (#2)

Prove or contradict:

[tex]\mbox{If } \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_{x_n}^{x_(n+1)} f(x)dx \mbox{ is convergent (#3) then } \int_{0}^\infty f(x)dx \mbox{ is also convergent.}[/tex]3. The attempt

[tex](*3)\ and\ by\ the\ Cauchy\ Criterion\ \Longrightarrow\ \forall\ \epsilon>0\ \exists\ N_1>0,\ so\ \forall\ m>k>N_1[/tex]

[tex]\left \int_{x_(k+1)}^{x_(m+1)} f(x)dx=(*1)=| \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_{x_n}^{x_(n+1)} f(x)dx|<\epsilon\mbox{ (*4)} \right[/tex][tex](*2)\ \Longrightarrow\ \forall\ N_1>0\ \exists\ N>0\ so\ \forall\ n>N_1,\ x_n>N\ \ \ \ (*5) }[/tex]

[tex](*4)\ and\ (*5)\ \Longrightarrow\ \forall\ m>k>N\ \int_{x_(k+1)}^{x_(m+1)} f(x)dx<\epsilon\\\Longrightarrow\ Cauchy\ Criterion\ \int_{0}^\infty f(x)dx\ is\ convergent.[/tex]

It seems right to me, but I'm not sure...
I think i also have vice versa proof.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
how about this as a counter example...

let
[tex]f(x) = cos(2 \pi x)[/tex]
[tex]x_n = n \in \mathds{N}[/tex]

Then
[tex]\int_{x_n}^{x_{n+1}} f(x)dx = \int_{x_n}^{x_{n+1}} cos(x)dx <br /> = 0[/tex]

But
[tex]\int_{0}^{x}cos(2 \pi x)dx = -\frac{1}{\pi} sin(x)[/tex]

though i guess it likely changes if it is true for any series...
 
Last edited:
But f(x) supposed to be positive and continuous when [tex]x \in [0,\infty)[/tex]

I'm actually taking about integral inside a series

And if I am wrong where is my blunder in the proof?
 
ok good point, missed the positive - must be too late ;)
 
This things happens sometimes, take another glance at my proof =)
Thank you!
 
Last edited:
Put an upper bound of N on the sum on the left side instead of infinity. Then you know the left side approaches a limit L as N->infinity. Put a definite upper bound of M on the right side integral. Then you want to show the integral also approaches L as M->infinity. You know for any integer N the sum is equal to the integral with an upper limit of x_N+1. So define F(M)=integral from 0 to M of f(x). You know lim F(x_n)->L as n->infinity. You just want to show F(M)->L as M->infinity. I.e. you just have to worry about the points M that are in between the x_i.
 
I wasn't able to fully understand all the points.
(The limit idea)

---------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



f(x) is a continuous and positive function when [tex]x\in[0,\infty)[/tex]. (*1)

[tex]x_n[/tex] is a monotonic increasing sequence, [tex]x_0=0[/tex] [tex],x_n \rightarrow \infty[/tex]. (*2)

Prove or contradict:

[tex]\mbox{If } \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_{x_n}^{x_(n+1)} f(x)dx \mbox{ is convergent (*3) then } \int_{0}^\infty f(x)dx \mbox{ is also convergent.}[/tex]
-------------------------------------------------------------

[tex]From\ (*3)\ \Rightarrow\ \forall\ \epsilon\ > 0\ \exists\ N_1>0\ so\ \forall\ m>k>N_1[/tex]

[tex]|\sum_{n=k+1}^{m} \int_{x_n}^{x_{n+1}} f(x)dx|=|\int_{x_{k+1}}^{x_{m+1}} f(x)dx|<\epsilon\ \ \ \ \ (*4)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*2)\ \Rightarrow\ \exists\ N_1>0\ so\ \forall\ n>N\ x_n>N\ \ \ \ \ (*5)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*4)\ and\ (*5)\ \Rightarrow\ \forall\ \epsilon>0\ and\ \forall\ s>t>N[/tex]

[tex]|\int_{t}^{s}f(x)dx|<\epsilon[/tex]

[tex]So\ by\ the\ Cauchy\ Criterion\ \int_{N}^\infty f(x)dx\ is\ convergent\ \ \ \ \ (*6)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*1)\ and\ (*6)\ \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)dx\ is\ convergent[/tex]
 
Last edited:
estro said:
I wasn't able to fully understand all the points.
(The limit idea)

---------------------------------------------

Homework Statement



f(x) is a continuous and positive function when [tex]x\in[0,\infty)[/tex]. (*1)

[tex]x_n[/tex] is a monotonic increasing sequence, [tex]x_0=0[/tex] [tex],x_n \rightarrow \infty[/tex]. (*2)

Prove or contradict:

[tex]\mbox{If } \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_{x_n}^{x_(n+1)} f(x)dx \mbox{ is convergent (*3) then } \int_{0}^\infty f(x)dx \mbox{ is also convergent.}[/tex]
-------------------------------------------------------------

[tex]From\ (*3)\ \Rightarrow\ \forall\ \epsilon\ > 0\ \exists\ N_1>0\ so\ \forall\ m>k>N_1[/tex]

[tex]|\sum_{n=(k+1)}^{m} \int_{x_n}^{x_{n+1}} f(x)dx|=|\int_{x_{k+1}}^{x_{m+1}} f(x)dx|<\epsilon\ \ \ \ \ (*4)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*2)\ \Rightarrow\ \exists\ N_1>0\ so\ \forall\ n>N\ x_n>N\ \ \ \ \ (*5)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*4)\ and\ (*5)\ \Rightarrow\ \forall\ \epsilon>0\ and\ \forall\ s>t>N[/tex]

[tex]|\int_{t}^{s}f(x)dx|<\epsilon[/tex]

[tex]So\ by\ the\ Cauchy\ Criterion\ \int_{N}^\infty f(x)dx\ is\ convergent\ \ \ \ \ (*6)[/tex]

[tex]From\ (*1)\ and\ (*6)\ \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)dx\ is\ convergent[/tex]

Did you understand any of the points? You 'proof' completely misses the point. Where did you use that f(x) is positive? You need to use that. Otherwise lanedance's example shows it's false.
 
[tex]From\ (*3)\ and\ (*2)\ and\ (*1)\ \forall\ m:\ \ \ \ \ 0\leq S_m=\int_{0}^{m} f(x)dx\ \leq L[/tex]

I understand now why my proof is wrong and all your points, thank you!
 

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K