# Inclined plane problem help please!

If the angle of a frictionless inclined plane 'a' is such that a=wt

where w is angular velocity and a is a function of t
and an object is sliding down that plane then...
if m is the mass of the object

m(dv/dt)=mgsin(wt)

solving for v i got

v=(-gcos(wt)/w)

Why is the velocity negative and Why is that when i substitute t=0 v is greater than 0?

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Hello Vatsa
What is the question asking for?
Can you please post the complete question , ?

Well...i just like solving problems i come up with....

So suppose you have a rotating inclined plane and the angle of inclination is a function of time such that....angle 'x'=angular velocity(w)*time(t)

now mgsin(x) is the horizotal component of g so the body on the frictionless inclined plane experiences a horizontal force=mgsin(x)..let the velocity along the incline plane be v
where m is the mass of the body
so...

m(dv/dt)=mgsin(x)

solving for v i got the above result...

my question is that even at t=0 why is there velocity..because at t=0 angle=0 and why is the velocity negative?

CWatters