Induced emf: Faraday's Law and Lenz's Law Question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem related to induced electromotive force (emf) as described by Faraday's Law and Lenz's Law. The scenario involves a conductive loop in a magnetic field that is changing over time, prompting questions about the induced emf and the calculations involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of induced emf using the formula involving magnetic flux and the rate of change of that flux. There are questions about the correctness of the calculations and the confidence in the results. Some participants express uncertainty about their understanding of the concepts involved.

Discussion Status

Several participants have confirmed the calculations presented, indicating a shared understanding of the problem. However, there remains some uncertainty expressed by the original poster regarding their confidence in the answer. The mention of Lenz's Law suggests an exploration of the implications of the induced emf.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding the relationship between changing magnetic fields and induced emf, as well as the potential confusion that can arise in physics discussions. There is an acknowledgment of the original poster's feelings of confusion regarding the concepts.

predentalgirl1
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[SOLVED] Induced emf: Faraday's Law and Lenz's Law Question

The plane of a conductive loop with an area of 0.020 m^2 is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.30 T. If the field drops to zero in 0.0045 s, what is the magnitude of the average emf induced in the loop?






Given that,
Area (a) = 0.020m2
Magnetic filed (B) = 0.30 T.
When the field drops to zero,
Time taken = 0.0045 s
I have,
Induced emf = Change in flux
Time taken
= B x a cos 90
Time taken
= 0.30 x 0.020 x 1
0.0045
= 1.33 V


Is my work/answer correct?
 
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That should be correct.
 
rock.freak667 said:
That should be correct.

Is it really correct...or are you just telling me that?
 
I calculated it the same way as you and got the same answer

E=\frac{BA}{t}
 
Ok...thanks. I just can't believe that I did it right. :)
 
\Phi = \iint \mathbf{B} \cdot d\mathbf{a}

which in a constant magnetic field perpindicular to a constant area will reduce to

\Phi = BA

Then you know that

\epsilon = \frac{d \Phi}{dt}

So the emf would be (assuming a constant change in the magnetic field)

\epsilon = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

and further shows that

\epsilon = \frac{A * (B_i - B_f)}{(t_i - t_f)}

where B_f and t_f are zero.

With numbers

\epsilon = \frac{.02*.3}{.0045}\frac{mB}{s^2} = 1.33V

You need some more confidence in yourself.

Edit:
Oh right, what about Lenz's law?
 
Last edited:
When it comes to physics I get so confused, that's why I'm on here. lol But thanks for your help.
 

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