Inelastic collision. Two angle variables.

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In an inelastic collision involving two cars of equal mass, one traveling north at speed 2v and the other at speed v at an angle phi south of east, the cars stick together and move at a final speed v_final at angle theta east of north. The discussion revolves around deriving v_final in terms of initial speed V_initial and angle theta, while eliminating angle phi. Participants suggest manipulating the equations for momentum conservation by isolating cosine and sine terms, using the identity cos²(phi) + sin²(phi) = 1 to facilitate the elimination of phi. The resulting equations lead to a quadratic form that can be solved for v_final without phi. The focus remains on correctly rearranging and simplifying the equations to achieve the desired result.
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Two cars, both of mass m, collide and stick together. Prior to the collision, one car had been traveling north at speed 2v, while the second was traveling at speed v at an angle phi south of east (as indicated in the figure). After the collision, the two-car system travels at speed v_final at an angle theta east of north.

Now I solved Vfinal into its i and j components

i: vicos\phi=2vfcos\theta

j: 2vi-sin\phivi=2(vfsin\theta)

The problem is if I solve for vfinal, I get the answer in terms of Vinitial, phi, and theta. The problem only asks for Vfinal in Vinitial and theta. How do I get rid of phi to only have theta and Vi?
 
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I think you changed the equations.It should be
i: vicosϕ=2vfsinθ
j: 2vi-sinϕvi=2(vfcosθ)
And my sugestion to get rid of phi is to isolate cosϕ on eq.i and use the fundamental relation cos²ϕ+sin²ϕ=1 to find sinϕ, and then substitute sinϕ on eq.j.
 
do you mean isolate cos(phi) and square it, and then isolate sin(phi) and then square it and then sub it into cos^2phi + sin^2phi =1? I did that but then I got an equation Vf and Vf^2 . The fraction looks unsolvable for Vf. Cannot factor or anything.
 
if i am not wrong

you can rearrange it to

2vi - 2vfcos(t) = vsin(phi)

2vfsin(t) = vcos(phi)

square both sides

your right hand side will be vi2 , since c and s cancel

your left hand side will be

4vi2 + 4vf2 - 8vivfcos(t)

this is quadratic, so use -b+- squareroot b^2 - 4ac over 2a.
 
quietrain said:
if i am not wrong

you can rearrange it to

2vi - 2vfcos(t) = vsin(phi)

2vfsin(t) = vcos(phi)

square both sides

your right hand side will be vi2 , since c and s cancel

your left hand side will be

4vi2 + 4vf2 - 8vivfcos(t)

this is quadratic, so use -b+- squareroot b^2 - 4ac over 2a.

I don't see how the sin and cos cancel when you square it? There must be a step I'm missing because if you square the first equation, on the right side you get Vi2sin\phi. On the left side you would get a long quadratic with variables Vi, Vf, and theta.
 
ttttrigg3r said:
I don't see how the sin and cos cancel when you square it? There must be a step I'm missing because if you square the first equation, on the right side you get Vi2sin\phi. On the left side you would get a long quadratic with variables Vi, Vf, and theta.

the aim is to get rid of the phi term right?

so that means you have to express phi in terms of everything else

so squaring both sides of both equations give you

4vi2 - 8vivfcos(t) + 4vf2cos2(t) = vi2sin2(phi)

4vf2sin2(t) = vi2cos2(phi)

so now look at the RHS of both equations, you add them so that the cos and sin (phi) "cancel off" since cos2x + sin2x = 1, so you effectively left with vi2 , i.e, you have factored out vi2

so similarly, for lhs, you combine the sin and cos (t) to get

4vi2 + 4vf2 - 8vivfcos(t) = vi2

so you are now effectively solving for vf in a quadratic equation, without the phi terms
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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