Infinite Potential Colliding with Wave Function: Is it Correct?

[rmfw]

Potential and wave function

If a particle comes from +infinite and collides with a potential of the form :

V = ∞ , x < 0 (I)
-V0 , 0<x<a (II)
0 , x≥a (III)

Is the wave function for region (I) = 0? And for region (II) = A sin(kx) with k constant?

Really need to know if I'm correct, thanks

 

[jaytech]

If a particle comes from +infinite and collides with a potential of the form :

V = ∞ , x < 0 (I)
-V0 , 0<x<a (II)
0 , x≥a (III)

Is the wave function for region (I) = 0? And for region (II) = A sin(kx) with k constant?

Really need to know if I'm correct, thanks

Yes region (I) has a 0 wave function. Region (II) requires a solution to the Schr. equation, but it should be similar to that.