Infinite union and intersection

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the equality between the union of a set A and an infinite collection of sets B_n, and the intersection of A minus B_n for all n. Participants analyze the logical implications of membership in these sets, specifically focusing on the conditions under which an element x belongs to either side of the equation A ∪ {n=1 to ∞} B_n = ∩{n=1 to ∞} (A \ B_n). Key points include the necessity of demonstrating that if x is in A \ B_n for all n, then it cannot be in the union of B_n, and vice versa. The proof requires careful articulation of these relationships.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of set theory, specifically union and intersection operations.
  • Familiarity with the notation of infinite sets and limits.
  • Basic knowledge of mathematical proofs and logical reasoning.
  • Experience with elements of real analysis, particularly in R^m.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of set operations in real analysis.
  • Learn about the principles of mathematical induction as they apply to infinite sets.
  • Explore examples of proofs involving unions and intersections of sets.
  • Investigate the implications of De Morgan's laws in set theory.
USEFUL FOR

Students of mathematics, particularly those studying set theory and real analysis, as well as educators seeking to enhance their understanding of proofs involving infinite unions and intersections.

jasonchen2002
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Homework Statement



Given a set A \in R^m, B_n \in R^m for n \in N, show that

A \ Union {from n = 1 to inf} B_n = Intersection {from n = 1 to inf} (A \ B_n}

Homework Equations



Same equation as above

The Attempt at a Solution



I think I have a solution in mind, but I wanted to make sure it is correct:

Say, take x \in (Intersection {from n = 1 to inf} (A \ B_n}), in order for x to be in that set, x must be in A \ B_n for all n \in N.

That implies A \ Union {from n = 1 to inf} B_n, is that correct for the proof? Can I somehow write it out better? I hope someone can fill the gaps in the proof, and any help will be appreciated.
 
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jasonchen2002 said:

Homework Statement



Given a set A \in R^m, B_n \in R^m for n \in N, show that

A \ Union {from n = 1 to inf} B_n = Intersection {from n = 1 to inf} (A \ B_n}

Homework Equations



Same equation as above

The Attempt at a Solution



I think I have a solution in mind, but I wanted to make sure it is correct:

Say, take x \in (Intersection {from n = 1 to inf} (A \ B_n}), in order for x to be in that set, x must be in A \ B_n for all n \in N.

That implies A \ Union {from n = 1 to inf} B_n, is that correct for the proof?
How does it imply that? That's the whole point of the proof. Yes, you are right that the fact that x is in A\ B_n for all n means that x is in A. Now you need to show that x is NOT in "union B_n". How does that follow? (I'm not saying it doesn't! I am saying you need to show that.)

Can I somehow write it out better? I hope someone can fill the gaps in the proof, and any help will be appreciated.
Of course, you also need to prove that "if x is in A\ union B_n, then x is in \intersection (A\B_n)".
 
That's the main trouble, I can't seem to describe the answer...
If x is in A \ B_n for all n, then x is in a set containing A "minus" B_n for all n, but n goes from 1 to infinity, that's the whole set B_n (union), so x is in A "minus" the union of B_n?

As for the other way around, take y \in A \ union B_n, for y to exist there must be at least one B_n for some n \in N such that y is in B_n.
That means the set A does not contain y, but now I'm not sure where to go to show that y is also in the intersecton of (A \ B_n)
 

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