Infinite well potential - changed bottom

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves calculating energy shifts for excited states in a modified infinite potential well, where the potential is defined as \(V(x) = \epsilon \sin {\dfrac{\pi x}{b}}\) for \(0 \le x \le b\). The original potential was zero within the well and infinite outside.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to find the wave functions \(\Psi_n\) for the modified potential and question the implications of the potential change on the wave functions. There is a focus on understanding the perturbation method and the significance of the potential shape.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the relationship between the potential shape and the wave functions. Some participants are questioning the assumptions about where the particle can exist in relation to the potential, while others are clarifying the need to derive the wave function as part of the perturbation calculation.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the interpretation of the potential graph and its implications for the particle's location. Participants are grappling with the concept of finite potential values within an infinite well and how that affects the wave function.

Kidiz
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Homework Statement



The bottom of an infinite well is changed to have the shape

$$V(x) = \epsilon \sin {\dfrac{\pi x}{b}}, 0 \le x \le b$$

Calculate the energy shifts for all the excited states to first order in ##\epsilon##. Note that the well originally had ##V(x) = 0## for ##0 \le x \le b## and ##V = \infty ## elsewhere.

Homework Equations

/Attempt at a solution[/B]

I know I should use ##<\Psi _n | H_1 | \Psi_n>##, and that ##H_1 = \epsilon \sin {\dfrac{\pi x}{b}}##. If I had ##\Psi _n## all I to do was integrate between ##0## and ##b##. However, I don't have ##\Psi _n##. For the "normal" potential well, I know that ##\Psi _ n = \sqrt{2/b} \sin {\dfrac{n \pi x}{b}}##. However, that is not the case in this exercise.

Any suggestions?
 
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You say: "However, that is not the case in this exercise." Why is it not? That is, what would the wave functions be if epsilon was zero?
 
DEvens said:
You say: "However, that is not the case in this exercise." Why is it not? That is, what would the wave functions be if epsilon was zero?

For epsilon = 0, we'd have no potential inside the box, so the solution would be ##\Psi _ n = \sqrt{2/b} \sin {\dfrac{n \pi x}{b}}##. I say that it's not the same because there's a space (below the potential line) in which the particle can not be. Is it the same though?
 
Kidiz said:
I say that it's not the same because there's a space (below the potential line) in which the particle can not be.

Um... What? It's a finite potential value inside an infinite square well. What do you mean "in which the particle can not be"? Where can't it be? And why not?
 
DEvens said:
Um... What? It's a finite potential value inside an infinite square well. What do you mean "in which the particle can not be"? Where can't it be? And why not?

I'm imagining something like this: http://sketchtoy.com/64403013

I said that the particle couldn't be in C, only in A. But now that I think about it, I don't see why it could not be in C.
 
Um... You do realize that your graph is plotting the value of the potential, right? It does not tell you where the particle is. It does not make sense what you said. The particle is neither in A nor C. It's not on that graph.

The particle has a wave function. You have to work out that wave function. Or at least, you are asked to work it out to first order in epsilon. You are being asked to do a perturbation calculation. You had most of it in your first post.
 

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