For each series, decide whether they converge or not: k≥1∑2/(k(k+2)) So, I am trying to use the Integral test on this problem. After applying partial fractions I receive the answer of ln(x)-ln(x+2) from 1 to infinity. Evaluating 1 is pretty straight forward.. ln(3). Which seems to be the correct answer. Infinity, however, leaves me with ln(infinity) - ln(infinity). My initial thinking is that this is equal to 0 and all is well. However, is it OK to evaluate this in such a manner? Infinity-infinity=0 ?? Or is that mechanically wrong?