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\int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex] vs. (\int dz G[z,y] J[z])^n

  1. Feb 9, 2007 #1
    If one is given two known functions G[x,y] and J[y], is there an explicit transformation that could be constructed to give us either one of the following integrals from the other?

    [tex] \int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex]
    [tex] \left( \int dz G[z,y] J[z] \right)^n [/itex]

    Here n is an integer.

    Thanks!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 9, 2007 #2

    Gib Z

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    Ahh made tex wont work in titles, better name it integrals or something. I would imagine that transformation is not possible, but I dont know.
     
  4. Feb 9, 2007 #3
    I would imagine not because it's not too hard to come up with G and J which give your first integral as divergent over particular domains for certain n and your second one well defined.
     
  5. Feb 9, 2007 #4
    This means the transformation doesn't exist in all generality. But I'd be interested in such a transformation even for restricted classes of G and J.
     
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