\int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex] vs. (\int dz G[z,y] J[z])^n

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between two integrals involving functions G[z,y] and J[z]. Participants explore whether a transformation exists that allows one integral to be derived from the other, specifically focusing on the integrals \int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] and \left( \int dz G[z,y] J[z] \right)^n , where n is an integer.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether a transformation exists to derive one integral from the other.
  • Another participant suggests that such a transformation is likely not possible, citing examples where the first integral could diverge while the second remains well-defined.
  • A similar viewpoint is reiterated, emphasizing that the transformation may not exist in all generality, though interest remains in exploring it for specific classes of G and J.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that a transformation is unlikely to exist universally, but there is interest in the possibility of such a transformation for restricted cases of G and J.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the potential for divergence in the first integral depending on the choice of functions G and J, while the second integral is noted to be well-defined under certain conditions.

wandering.the.cosmos
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If one is given two known functions G[x,y] and J[y], is there an explicit transformation that could be constructed to give us either one of the following integrals from the other?

\int dz G[z,y]^n J[z] [/itex]<br /> \left( \int dz G[z,y] J[z] \right)^n [/itex]&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Here n is an integer.&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Thanks!
 
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Ahh made tex won't work in titles, better name it integrals or something. I would imagine that transformation is not possible, but I don't know.
 
I would imagine not because it's not too hard to come up with G and J which give your first integral as divergent over particular domains for certain n and your second one well defined.
 
AlphaNumeric said:
I would imagine not because it's not too hard to come up with G and J which give your first integral as divergent over particular domains for certain n and your second one well defined.

This means the transformation doesn't exist in all generality. But I'd be interested in such a transformation even for restricted classes of G and J.
 

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