- #1
Safinaz
- 260
- 8
Hi all ,
I see this integral too much in QFT books when making loop calculations :
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \delta (x+y+z-1) = \int_{0}^{1} dz \int_{0}^{1-z} dy ##
Can anyone explain how did we get this ? I mean it's apparent that ##\int_{0}^{1}~ dx \delta (x+y+z-1) ## have been evaluated and equals one, but when applying ##\delta## when integrating ##dy## why it equals ## 1-z## , not ##1-z-x ## ?
Also suppose now I have the following function:
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \log ~\frac{m_1(x+y) + z m_2}{m_1(x+y)+ z(m_2+ m_3)} ##
how can this evaluated ? or even a simpler function:
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \delta (x+y+z-1) ~ (x+y +z) ##
I see this integral too much in QFT books when making loop calculations :
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \delta (x+y+z-1) = \int_{0}^{1} dz \int_{0}^{1-z} dy ##
Can anyone explain how did we get this ? I mean it's apparent that ##\int_{0}^{1}~ dx \delta (x+y+z-1) ## have been evaluated and equals one, but when applying ##\delta## when integrating ##dy## why it equals ## 1-z## , not ##1-z-x ## ?
Also suppose now I have the following function:
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \log ~\frac{m_1(x+y) + z m_2}{m_1(x+y)+ z(m_2+ m_3)} ##
how can this evaluated ? or even a simpler function:
## \int_{0}^{1}~ dx~ dy~ dz~ \delta (x+y+z-1) ~ (x+y +z) ##