Integrability of f,g on [a,b] and its Implications

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the implications of the integrability of functions f and g on the interval [a,b]. Specifically, it addresses how the equation \(\int_a^b (f - \lambda g)^2 = 0\) leads to the conclusion that \((\int (fg))^{1/2} \leq (\int f^2)^{1/2} (\int g^2)^{1/2}\). This relationship is a direct application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality in the context of integrable functions, demonstrating the conditions under which the inequality holds true.

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f,g integrable on [a,b]

how does
[tex] \\integral from a to b of (f- lamda*g)^2 = 0 imply<br /> <br /> (\\integral (fg))^(1/2) =< (\\int f^2)^(1/2)(\\int g^2)^(1/2) ?<br /> <br /> [\tex]<br /> <br /> Thank you![/tex]
 
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I still clearly don't have the hang of Latex, either.
 
here's how it should look

how does
[tex] \int^b_a(f- \lambda g)^2 = 0 \rightarrow<br /> <br /> (\int(f*g))^{1/2} =< (\int f^2)^{1/2}(\int g^2)^{1/2} ?<br /> [/tex]
 

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