Integral = 2pi sum res UHP + pi i sum res real axis

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral \(\Ima\left[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{iz}}{z(\pi^2 - z^2)}dz\right]\) using residue theory. Participants explore the contributions from poles located on the real axis and the upper half-plane, questioning the correctness of the initial calculation that leads to a discrepancy in the expected result.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the integral can be expressed as \(2\pi i\sum_{\text{UHP}}\Res(f(z); z_j) + \pi i\sum_{\mathbb{R}\text{ axis}}\Res(f(z); z_k)\), but notes that all poles are on the real axis.
  • Another participant suggests evaluating the integral \(\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\frac{e^{iz}}{z(z^2-\pi^2)}\, dz\) as an alternative approach.
  • A different participant mentions that in Mathematica, the integral evaluates to \(-\frac{2}{\pi}\), indicating a potential sign issue in the calculations.
  • One participant provides residue calculations at the poles \(z = \pi\) and \(z = -\pi\), concluding that they do not cancel out, which may contribute to the confusion regarding the integral's value.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the evaluation of the integral and the contributions from the poles. There is no consensus on the correct approach or the final value of the integral, indicating ongoing debate and exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not resolved the discrepancies in their calculations, and there are indications of missing assumptions or misunderstandings regarding the contributions from the poles.

Dustinsfl
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\(\DeclareMathOperator{\Ima}{Im}\)
\(\DeclareMathOperator{\Res}{Res}\)
Given
\[
\Ima\left[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{iz}}{z(\pi^2 - z^2)}dz\right].
\]
I know the integral is equal to
\[
2\pi i\sum_{\text{UHP}}\Res(f(z); z_j) + \pi i\sum_{\mathbb{R}\text{ axis}}\Res(f(z); z_k).
\]
However, the poles are \(z = 0\) and \(z = \pm\pi\) which are all on the real axis so we just have the sum on the real axis.
\[
\pi i\sum\lim_{z\to z_j}(z - z_j)\frac{e^{iz}}{z(\pi^2 - z^2)} =
\pi i\left[\frac{1}{\pi^2} + \frac{1}{2\pi^2} - \frac{1}{2\pi^2}\right] = \frac{i}{\pi}
\]
However, the solution is \(\frac{2}{\pi}\). What is wrong?
 
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Try the following

$$\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\frac{e^{iz}}{z(z^2-\pi^2)}\, dz$$

what do you get ?
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Try the following

$$\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\frac{e^{iz}}{z(z^2-\pi^2)}\, dz$$

what do you get ?

If you do that, you need to pick up a negative sign out front then though.

In Mathematica, that integral is \(-\frac{2}{\pi}\).
 
I mean try finding the integral by residues , you will see where your confusion is.
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
I mean try finding the integral by residues , you will see where your confusion is.

That didn't help.
 
By residues we have

$$\lim_{z\to \pi }(z-\pi) \frac{e^{iz}}{z(\pi^2-z^2)}=\lim_{z\to \pi } \frac{e^{iz}}{-z(z+\pi)}=\frac{1}{2\pi^2}$$

Also we have

$$\lim_{z\to -\pi }(z+\pi) \frac{e^{iz}}{z(\pi^2-z^2)}=\lim_{z\to - \pi } \frac{e^{i\pi}}{z(\pi-z)}=\frac{1}{2\pi^2}$$

So they don't cancel.
 
Last edited:

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