Integral (e^-ax)sin(bx) from 0 to infinity

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SUMMARY

The integral of (e^-ax)sin(bx) from 0 to infinity evaluates to zero when applying the limit as x approaches infinity. The solution provided is correct, confirming that the result is derived from the lower limit at x=0. The expression for the integral is given as \(\frac { \frac { -1 }{ a } { e }^{ -ax }\quad sinbx\quad -\frac { b }{ { a }^{ 2 } } { e }^{ -ax }\quad cosbx }{ 1+\frac { { b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } }\).

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Homework Statement



integral (e^-ax)sin(bx) from 0 to infinity

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I want to check if my answer is right

I got

\frac { \frac { -1 }{ a } { e }^{ -ax }\quad sinbx\quad -\frac { b }{ { a }^{ 2 } } { e }^{ -ax }\quad cosbx }{ 1+\frac { { b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } }

and when I did the limit to infinity I got zero?

I'm not sure if it's correct
 
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applestrudle said:

Homework Statement



integral (e^-ax)sin(bx) from 0 to infinity

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I want to check if my answer is right

I got

$$\frac { \frac { -1 }{ a } { e }^{ -ax }\quad sinbx\quad -\frac { b }{ { a }^{ 2 } } { e }^{ -ax }\quad cosbx }{ 1+\frac { { b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } } $$

and when I did the limit to infinity I got zero?

I'm not sure if it's correct
Yup, that's right. The result of the integral is what you get from the lower limit x=0.
 
vela said:
Yup, that's right. The result of the integral is what you get from the lower limit x=0.

thanks :smile:
 

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