Integral Help: Solving ln(x) from 0 to 1

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving the definite integral of ln(x) from 0 to 1 using integration by parts. The user initially misapplies the integration technique, leading to confusion regarding the area under the curve. The correct application reveals that the integral results in a negative area, as ln(x) is negative over the interval (0, 1). The final conclusion emphasizes that integration calculates the net signed area between the curve and the x-axis, rather than merely the geometric area.

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  • Knowledge of limits and indeterminate forms
  • Basic concepts of signed areas in calculus
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pmqable
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the definite integral is: integral from 0 to 1 of ln(x). i used integration by parts (u=ln(x), du=1/x dx, dv=dx, v=x) to show that the integral is equal to:

[x*ln(x)] (1,0) - integral from 0 to 1 of dx.

this gives 1*ln(1)-0*ln(0)-(1-0)

ln(1)=0, so the equation is now

0*ln(0)-1

0*ln(0) is an indeterminate form, so i used the limit:
lim x-->0 x*ln(x)
lim x-->0 ln(x)/(1/x)
lim x-->0 (1/x)/(-1/x^2)
lim x-->0 -x
=0.

so the area is 0-1=-1, which doesn't make sense. what did i do wrong?
 
Last edited:
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pmqable said:
the definite integral is: integral from 0 to 1 of x*ln(x). i used integration by parts (u=ln(x), du=1/x dx, dv=dx, v=x) to show that the integral is equal to:

Shouldn't dv=xdx?

v=x^2/2

uv-integral(vdu)=(x^2lnx)/2-integral((x/2)dx)

=[(x^2lnx)/2-x^2/4] from 0 to 1.

ln(1)/2-1/4
=0-1/4
=-(1/4)
 
Last edited:
jreelawg said:
Shouldn't dv=xdx?

v=x^2/2

sorry youre right the original equation should just be integral of ln(x)
 
And, what is the SIGN of "ln(x)" on the interval 0 to 1?
 
arildno said:
And, what is the SIGN of "ln(x)" on the interval 0 to 1?

positive?
 
pmqable said:
positive?

Is it?
(I wrote "ln(x)", I didn't mean the absolute value of ln(x), just ln(x), but I used citation marks. Sorry)
 
arildno said:
Is it?

oh wait it's negative haha... but it doesn't matter because -0=0 right?
 
pmqable said:
oh wait it's negative haha... but it doesn't matter because -0=0 right?

I don't get what you say.
You get a negative area, because the area lies fully BENEATH the x-axis.

Integration yields you the net, signed area between a curve, and the x-axis .
 
arildno said:
I don't get what you say.
You get a negative area, because the area lies fully BENEATH the x-axis.

Integration yields you the net, signed area between a curve, and the x-axis .

ok thank you very much... believe it or not, every integral i have ever done has resulted in a positive area. i just integrated x^2-4 from -1 to 1 and and sure enough, i got a negative area. lesson learned :)
 
  • #10
Glad to be of help!
To make you understand WHY it must be so, remember that "essentially", integration is to sum together a (n infinite) number of quantities, each of which quantity is the function's VALUE at some point (either positive, negative or zero) MULTIPLIED with a (n infinitely small) positve length.

Thus, although this seems to be a sum of strict areas of RECTANGLES, the HEIGHT (i.e, the function value) of those rectangles may have any type of sign.

THAT is why integration is NOT, simplistically, "the area under a curve", but rather, the net, signed "area" encompassed between a curve and the x-axis.
 

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