Integral of the Inverse Gamma Distribution

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral of the Inverse Gamma Distribution, specifically whether this integral equals 1 as it is a probability density function (pdf). Participants explore both the indefinite and definite integrals of the distribution, as well as related probability calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants inquire if the integral of the Inverse Gamma Distribution pdf equals 1, suggesting it should hold true for a valid pdf.
  • One participant provides a detailed derivation of the integral, confirming it equals 1 under certain conditions.
  • Another participant questions whether the same result holds for definite integrals from 0 to a constant, indicating a shift in focus to probability calculations.
  • Some participants propose calculating the probability \( P\{ X > \gamma \} \) for a random variable \( X \) following the Inverse Gamma Distribution, presenting a formula involving an integral and a series expansion.
  • One participant expresses interest in calculating \( P\{ X < \gamma \} \) and suggests using the cumulative distribution function (cdf) of the Gamma distribution as part of their approach, acknowledging the lack of a closed form for the cdf of the Inverse Gamma Distribution.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the validity of the integral equating to 1 for the pdf, but there is no consensus on the implications for definite integrals or the specific probability calculations discussed. Multiple competing views and approaches remain regarding the integration limits and the use of transformations.

Contextual Notes

Some limitations include the dependence on the parameters \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \), and the unresolved nature of the cdf for the Inverse Gamma Distribution, which complicates certain probability calculations.

mloo01
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Hi,
I am trying to solve the integral of the Inverse Gamma Distribution.
Does this equate to 1 as it is a pdf?
Thanks
 
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statty said:
Hi,
I am trying to solve the integral of the Inverse Gamma Distribution.
Does this equate to 1 as it is a pdf?
Thanks

The Inverse Gamma Distribution has p.d.f. defined as...

$\displaystyle f(x;\alpha,\beta)= \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}},\ x>0$ (1)

... where $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are constant. The integral of (1), operating the substitution $\displaystyle \frac{\beta}{x}=\xi$ is...

$\displaystyle \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}}\ dx = \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \beta^{- \alpha} \int_{0}^{\infty} \xi^{\alpha-1}\ e^{- \xi}\ d \xi = \frac {\Gamma(\alpha)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}=1 $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Thank you very much!
chisigma said:
The Inverse Gamma Distribution has p.d.f. defined as...

$\displaystyle f(x;\alpha,\beta)= \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}},\ x>0$ (1)

... where $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are constant. The integral of (1), operating the substitution $\displaystyle \frac{\beta}{x}=\xi$ is...

$\displaystyle \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}}\ dx = \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \beta^{- \alpha} \int_{0}^{\infty} \xi^{\alpha-1}\ e^{- \xi}\ d \xi = \frac {\Gamma(\alpha)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}=1 $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
On reflection I was thinking - Is the same true if I am integrating over a definite integral from 0 to a constant?

chisigma said:
The Inverse Gamma Distribution has p.d.f. defined as...

$\displaystyle f(x;\alpha,\beta)= \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}},\ x>0$ (1)

... where $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are constant. The integral of (1), operating the substitution $\displaystyle \frac{\beta}{x}=\xi$ is...

$\displaystyle \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{- \frac{\beta}{x}}\ dx = \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \beta^{- \alpha} \int_{0}^{\infty} \xi^{\alpha-1}\ e^{- \xi}\ d \xi = \frac {\Gamma(\alpha)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}=1 $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
statty said:
On reflection I was thinking - Is the same true if I am integrating over a definite integral from 0 to a constant?

I think You have in mind to compute, given a r.v. X which is 'Inverse Gamma', the probability $P\{ X> \gamma\}$ or something like that. This is perfectly possible for $\alpha>0$...

$\displaystyle P\{X>\gamma\}= \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{\gamma}^{\infty} x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{-\frac{\beta}{x}}\ dx = \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{0}^{\frac{\beta}{\gamma}} \xi^{\alpha-1}\ e^{- \xi}\ d \xi =$

$\displaystyle = \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\gamma^{\alpha}\ \Gamma(\alpha)}\ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n}\ \frac{(\frac{\beta}{\gamma})^{n}}{(n+\alpha)\ n!}$ (1)

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Last edited:
Thank you for your reply, that is most helpful
 
chisigma said:
I think You have in mind to compute, given a r.v. X which is 'Inverse Gamma', the probability $P\{ X> \gamma\}$ or something like that. This is perfectly possible for $\alpha>0$...

$\displaystyle P\{X>\gamma\}= \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{\gamma}^{\infty} x^{-(1+\alpha)}\ e^{-\frac{\beta}{x}}\ dx = \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\ \int_{0}^{\frac{\beta}{\gamma}} \xi^{\alpha-1}\ e^{- \xi}\ d \xi =$

$\displaystyle = \frac{\beta^{\alpha}}{\gamma^{\alpha}\ \Gamma(\alpha)}\ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n}\ \frac{(\frac{\beta}{\gamma})^{n}}{(n+\alpha)\ n!}$ (1)

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Your last explanation was very helpful.
I would like however to compute the probability $P\{ X< \gamma\}$
Can I follow an approach similar to yours above?
I had been thinking of following the following approach:

P1=integral(A(x)) over [0,x] where A(x) is the inverse gamma distribution function.
Integrating over [0,x] will get the cdf however this does not exist in closed form.
Hence, to compute this I can use the Gamma distribution cdf and a transformation. So if B has the Gamma distribution then C=1/B has the inverse Gamma distribution.
F(x)= P(C<=x)=P(1/B <=x)
=P(1/x<=B)
=1-P(B<1/x)
=1-F(1/x)
Hence I am finding the Gamma cdf and subtracting it from 1.

Any thoughts?
 

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