Integral question: Product to Sum Angle Formula for Trigonometric Functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the product to sum angle formula for trigonometric functions, specifically in the context of evaluating integrals involving sine and cosine functions. The original poster attempts to apply this formula to a definite integral from -π to π.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of applying the product to sum formula and the resulting integrals. There are questions about the behavior of terms when k equals n, particularly regarding division by zero and the evaluation of limits. Some participants also explore the conditions under which certain terms become zero.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants raising important points about the assumptions made in the problem, particularly concerning the values of k and n. There is a recognition of the need to handle cases where k equals n differently, and some guidance has been offered regarding the evaluation of integrals in those scenarios.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem may impose constraints on the values of k and n, particularly suggesting that they are integers, which affects the validity of certain conclusions drawn in the discussion.

Kuma
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Homework Statement



Here is the question given:

jp09x.png



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



SO i used the product to sum angle formula:
sin u sin v = 1/2[cos(u-v) - cos (u + v)]

so I get
from ∏ to -∏

1/2 ∫cos(k-n)x dx - ∫cos(k+n)x dx

= 1/2 [1/k-n (sin (k-n)∏ - sin(k-n)-∏) -1/k+n(sin(k+n)∏ - sin(k+n)-∏)]

so when k isn't equal to ±n, i think the second term becomes 0, but the first term doesn't have to be 0 as well (for the first condition).
 
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What is [itex]\sin(n\pi)[/itex] if [itex]n\in \mathbb{Z}[/itex]?


Also note that your method does not work if n=k. Indeed, you seem to have a term [itex]\frac{1}{n-k}[/itex] there. But if n=k, then you will divide by zero. So if n=k, then you'll need to do something different.
 
Kuma said:

Homework Statement



Here is the question given:

jp09x.png


b]3. The Attempt at a Solution [/b]

SO i used the product to sum angle formula:
sin u sin v = 1/2[cos(u-v) - cos (u + v)]

so I get
from ∏ to -∏

1/2 ∫cos(k-n)x dx - ∫cos(k+n)x dx

= 1/2 [1/(k-n) (sin (k-n)∏ + sin(k-n)∏) -1/(k+n)(sin(k+n)∏ + sin(k+n)∏)]

so when k isn't equal to ±n, i think the second term becomes 0, but the first term doesn't have to be 0 as well (for the first condition).
sin(mπ) = 0 for all integers, m. So when k≠n, all those terms are zero.

When k=n, the last term is zero. The first term must be evaluated as a limit n → k .
 
Yes you are right about the second condition when k = n i will get 1/0, but how do I eliminate that term then
 
Kuma said:
Yes you are right about the second condition when k = n i will get 1/0, but how do I eliminate that term then
Actually it's of the form 0/0 .
 
Kuma said:
Yes you are right about the second condition when k = n i will get 1/0, but how do I eliminate that term then

If k=n, then

[tex]\int_{-\pi}^\pi \cos(n-k)x dx=\int_{-\pi}^\pi \cos(0)dx=\int_{-\pi}^\pi dx[/tex]
 
If n=k, the integrand becomes sin2(kx).
 
SammyS said:
sin(mπ) = 0 for all integers, m. So when k≠n, all those terms are zero.

When k=n, the last term is zero. The first term must be evaluated as a limit n → k .


I see what you did but k+n doesn't necessarily have to be an integer does it? What if k+n= 0.5, it doesn't make it 0.
 
Kuma said:
I see what you did but k+n doesn't necessarily have to be an integer does it? What if k+n= 0.5, it doesn't make it 0.

I think the question implies that both n and k are integers. If n and k are not integers, then the result is not true.
 

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