Integral test - ultimately decreasing function

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The discussion clarifies that a function is "ultimately decreasing" if there exists a point R beyond which the function consistently decreases. An example provided is f(x) = (1 + (x - 5)^2)^{-1}, which increases for x < 5 but decreases for x ≥ 5. This behavior demonstrates that the integral test can still apply, as the function's convergence is not affected by its initial increase. The integral of this function from 0 to infinity converges, confirming the series' convergence. Ultimately, understanding the concept of "ultimately decreasing" is crucial for applying the integral test correctly.
TysonM8
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My textbook states that "For the integral test to apply, it is not necessary that f be always decreasing. What is important is that f be ultimately decreasing."

I'm just curious what is meant by this statement. How do you define a function that is "ultimately decreasing"? It'd be great if you could find an example of a function that increases over a certain domain but ultimately decreases, in which the integral test applies.
 
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TysonM8 said:
My textbook states that "For the integral test to apply, it is not necessary that f be always decreasing. What is important is that f be ultimately decreasing."

I'm just curious what is meant by this statement. How do you define a function that is "ultimately decreasing"?

A function f is "ultimately decreasing" if there exists R such that f(x) &gt; f(y) whenever R \leq x &lt; y.

It'd be great if you could find an example of a function that increases over a certain domain but ultimately decreases, in which the integral test applies.

Consider
\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1 + (n - 5)^2}

f(x) = (1 + (x - 5)^2)^{-1} is decreasing for x \geq 5. The fact that f is increasing for 0 \leq x \leq 5 does not affect convergence. We have
<br /> \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1 + (x - 5)^2}\,\mathrm{d}x = <br /> \left[ \arctan(x - 5)\right]_{0}^{\infty} = \frac{\pi}{2} - \arctan(-5) = \frac{\pi}{2} + \arctan(5)
so the series converges.
 

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