Integrals & Limits: Intuitive Understanding of Convergence

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the intuitive understanding of convergence in the context of improper integrals, specifically examining the conditions under which the integral $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx$ converges and the implications for the limits of the function $f(x)$ as $x$ approaches infinity and negative infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that if $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx$ converges, then both $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x)$ and $\lim_{{x}\to{\infty}}f(x)$ must equal the same value.
  • One participant suggests that for convergence, $\lim\limits_{{x}\to{\infty}}f(x)$ must equal 0, questioning why it cannot equal any other number.
  • Another participant argues that if $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty} f(x)=c > 0$, it leads to a contradiction regarding the convergence of the integral.
  • Some participants inquire about the significance of $\varepsilon$ and $a$ in the context of limits, expressing a need for clarification on these terms.
  • There is a suggestion to visualize the integral to better understand why the limit must approach 0 for convergence.
  • Participants discuss the implications of the area under the curve for the integral, noting that if the height does not approach zero, the area tends to infinity.
  • One participant questions whether $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x)$ must also approach 0 for the integral to converge over the entire interval.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty and explore multiple viewpoints regarding the conditions for convergence of the integral. There is no consensus on the intuitive understanding of why the limits must equal 0, and the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference the $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ definition of limits, which some are unfamiliar with, indicating a potential gap in foundational knowledge that may affect their understanding of the discussion.

MermaidWonders
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Suppose that $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx$ converges. Then $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x) = \lim_{{x}\to{\infty}}f(x)$. Why is it true? I have some trouble understanding this intuitively.
 
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MermaidWonders said:
Suppose that $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx$ converges. Then $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x) = \lim_{{x}\to{\infty}}f(x)$. Why is it true? I have some trouble understanding this intuitively.

Hey MermaidWonders!

Let's start with $\int_0^{\infty} f(x)\,dx$, which must also converge.
Then $\lim\limits_{{x}\to{\infty}}f(x) = 0$ isn't it? (Wondering)
Because otherwise it wouldn't converge.
 
Oh, OK, but why can't the limit equal to any other number other than 0 for it to converge?
 
MermaidWonders said:
Oh, OK, but why can't the limit equal to any other number other than 0 for it to converge?

Suppose $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty} f(x)=c > 0$.
Then for $\varepsilon = \frac c 2 > 0$ there must be some $a$ such that for every $x>a$ we have that $f(x)>c-\varepsilon=\frac c2$.
That's part of what 'limit' means.
But then $\int_a^\infty f(x)\,dx > \int_a^\infty \frac c2\,dx \to \infty$ meaning it does not converge, which is a contradiction.
 
What's $\varepsilon$ and $a$? Do these variables pertain to the precise definition of a limit? If so, this is something we haven't touched on yet, so would you mind explaining their significance with respect to this question? Also, is there another way to approach this question using the regular/basic definition of limits? Thanks!
 
MermaidWonders said:
What's $\varepsilon$ and $a$? Do these variables pertain to the precise definition of a limit? If so, this is something we haven't touched on yet, so would you mind explaining their significance with respect to this question? Also, is there another way to approach this question using the regular/basic definition of limits? Thanks!

What is the regular/basic definition of limits that you are familiar with?
The generic definition is the so-called $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ definition, which may come later for you.
 
Oh, oops. By "regular/basic definition" of limits, I meant like limits of the basic form $\lim_{{x}\to{a}}f(x)$... And yeah, the generic definition of the limit you have up there is unfamiliar to me too, but I do suppose we'll learn it later.
 
MermaidWonders said:
Oh, oops. By "regular/basic definition" of limits, I meant like limits of the basic form $\lim_{{x}\to{a}}f(x)$... And yeah, the generic definition of the limit you have up there is unfamiliar to me too, but I do suppose we'll learn it later.

Erm... then I'm not quite sure what I can use or not.
Can you perhaps use the fact that a series $x_1 + x_2 + ...$ can only converge if $x_n \to 0$?
Or that an improper integral like $\int_0^\infty f(x)\,dx$ can only converge if $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = 0$?
 
Yeah, sure. :) I'll just plant this "rule" into my brain for now and then see if I can understand it better conceptually once we do learn more about limits. But for now, is possible for you to draw a picture to illustrate why the limit has to equal to 0 and not any other constants? That's what I'm still having trouble with.
 
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  • #10
MermaidWonders said:
Yeah, sure. I'll just plant this "rule" into my brain for now and then see if I can understand it conceptually once we do learn more about limits. But for now, is possible for you to draw a picture to illustrate why the limit has to equal to 0 and not any other constants? That's what I'm still having trouble with.

Conceptually an integral corresponds to the area under a graph.
If that graph extends to infinity, the height of the graph must approach zero, since otherwise that area tends to infinity.
 
  • #11
Oh, so that's it? Then does it mean that $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x)$ would also have to approach 0 in order for the integral to converge during the entire stretch of the interval from $-\infty$ to $\infty$?
 
  • #12
MermaidWonders said:
Oh, OK, but why can't the limit equal to any other number other than 0 for it to converge?

Another way of looking at this is to visualize $\int_0^\infty c\,dx$, where $c>0$. Now make a drawing, including the $x$-axis, of what this integral looks like in terms of an area between $c$ and the $x$-axis. What do you notice?
 
  • #13
MermaidWonders said:
Oh, so that's it? Then does it mean that $\lim_{{x}\to{-\infty}}f(x)$ would also have to approach 0 in order for the integral to converge during the entire stretch of the interval from $-\infty$ to $\infty$?

Yep. (Nod)
 
  • #14
greg1313 said:
Another way of looking at this is to visualize $\int_0^\infty c\,dx$, where $c>0$. Now make a drawing, including the $x$-axis, of what this integral looks like in terms of an area between $c$ and the $x$-axis. What do you notice?
It diverges? Since the area under the "curve" tends towards infinity as the upper limit of integration is $\infty$.

- - - Updated - - -

Thanks for all the help, guys! :) 👍👍
 
  • #15
MermaidWonders said:
It diverges? Since the area under the "curve" tends towards infinity as the upper limit of integration is $\infty$.

Basically, that's it.
 

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