- #1
Billy.Ljm
- 4
- 0
If [itex]k[/itex] is a constant, I know
[itex]\frac{d}{dx} \ln(x) = \frac{1}{x}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{dx} \ln(kx) = \frac{k}{kx} = \frac{1}{x}[/itex]
However, what about [itex]\int\frac{1}{x}[/itex].
I've been taught to use [itex]\int\frac{1}{x} = \ln(x)[/itex],
but wouldn't [itex]\int\frac{1}{x} = \ln(kx)[/itex] work as well.
And if this is true, there are an infinite number of integrals??
[itex]\frac{d}{dx} \ln(x) = \frac{1}{x}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{dx} \ln(kx) = \frac{k}{kx} = \frac{1}{x}[/itex]
However, what about [itex]\int\frac{1}{x}[/itex].
I've been taught to use [itex]\int\frac{1}{x} = \ln(x)[/itex],
but wouldn't [itex]\int\frac{1}{x} = \ln(kx)[/itex] work as well.
And if this is true, there are an infinite number of integrals??