Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx: No Parts Needed

  • Thread starter Thread starter HermitOfThebes
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integration
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral of Cos(x)/(1+sin(x)) from 0 to π/2 can be solved without using integration by parts (IBP) by employing substitution techniques. The relationship between cos(x) and (1 + sin(x)) is crucial for simplifying the integral. Specifically, the substitution involving the expression (1 - sin(x))/(1 - sin(x)) aids in transforming the integral into a more manageable form. This approach allows for the evaluation of the integral effectively without the need for IBP.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic integral calculus
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities
  • Knowledge of substitution methods in integration
  • Concept of derivatives, particularly d/dx(1 + sin(x))
NEXT STEPS
  • Research substitution techniques in integral calculus
  • Explore trigonometric identities and their applications in integration
  • Study the relationship between sine and cosine functions
  • Learn about integration techniques that do not involve integration by parts
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on integration techniques, and educators looking for alternative methods to teach integration without relying on integration by parts.

HermitOfThebes
Messages
25
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx from 0 to pi/2. "The question does not assume knowledge of integration by parts."

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Could it be found using the quotient rule?
If not, is there any way of proving it without using integration by parts?

Mod note: Edited this post by moving text, to comply with our rules about including an attempt.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
HermitOfThebes said:

Homework Statement


Integrate Cosx/1+sinx dx from 0 to pi/2. "The question does not assume knowledge of integration by parts."
Could it be found using the quotient rule?
If not, is there any way of proving it without using integration by parts?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

The quotient rule is for taking the derivative of the quotient of two functions. There is no quotient rule for integration as such.

Since IBP is off limits, look at the relationship between cos (x) and (1 + sin (x)). Notice anything special?
 
I assume you mean ##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)} ##.
Immediately I came up with this trick you might try.
##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)}
\frac{1 - sin(x)}{1 - sin(x)} = \frac{cos(x)(1+sin(x))}{(1-sin^2 x)} = ??##
These integrals can be solved by substitution. Integration by parts is not necessary. There are essentially no general product or quotient rules for integrals besides integration by parts. But this particular integral can be solved with other techniques such as substitution.
 
MisterX said:
I assume you mean ##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)} ##.
Immediately I came up with this trick you might try.
##\frac{cos(x)}{1+ sin(x)}
\frac{1 - sin(x)}{1 - sin(x)} = \frac{cos(x)(1+sin(x))}{(1-sin^2 x)} = ??##
These integrals can be solved by substitution. Integration by parts is not necessary. There are essentially no general product or quotient rules for integrals besides integration by parts. But this particular integral can be solved with other techniques such as substitution.
This is much more complicated than just checking out the relationship between the cosine and (1 + sine).
 
SteamKing said:
This is much more complicated than just checking out the relationship between the cosine and (1 + sine).
You are right. HermitOfThebes, ignore my post.
 
What's the derivative of sine?

Can you see a neat substitution you could make?
 
SteamKing said:
The quotient rule is for taking the derivative of the quotient of two functions. There is no quotient rule for integration as such.

Since IBP is off limits, look at the relationship between cos (x) and (1 + sin (x)). Notice anything special?
I know that sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2). I can't quite see the relationship though.
 
HermitOfThebes said:
I know that sinx/1+cosx is tan(x/2). I can't quite see the relationship though.

What is \frac{d}{dx}(1 + \sin x)?

(Also, please use brackets: sin(x)/1 + cos(x) means \frac{\sin(x)}{1} + \cos(x). You want sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)).
 
pasmith said:
What is \frac{d}{dx}(1 + \sin x)?

(Also, please use brackets: sin(x)/1 + cos(x) means \frac{\sin(x)}{1} + \cos(x). You want sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)).
d/dx (1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate?
 
  • #10
HermitOfThebes said:
d/dx (1+sinx) = cosx. But why would I differentiate?
nvm. I see what you're saying.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
16
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
6K