Integrating Around a Circle: Proving an Infinite Series Equation

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romeo6
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Here is my problem:

I need to integrate:

[tex](\frac{sin \alpha z}{\alpha z})^2\frac{\pi}{sin\pi z}[/tex]

around a circle of large radii and prove:

[tex]\sum_{m=1}^\infty(-1)^{n-1} <br /> <br /> <br /> (\frac{sin m\alpha}{m\alpha})^2<br /> <br /> <br /> =\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

I'm kind stumped.

I've been looking at books for a while now and the only useful things I've discovered are:

[tex]\frac{\pi}{sin \pi z}=\Gamma(z)\Gamma(1-z)[/tex]

and also

[tex]\frac{sin z}{z}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty C_n z^{2n-1}[/tex]

Can anyone help me out?

Thanks!
 
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Well,
[tex](\frac{sin \alpha z}{\alpha z})^2\frac{\pi}{sin\pi z}[/tex]
has poles at every integer, since sine will be 0 there.

The integral will be an infinite sum of residues.
 
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Thanks Halls, I just got all pleased with myself then realized I've hit another snag:

Ok, so I just used the rule:

[tex]Res=\frac{g(z_0))}{h(z_0)'}[/tex]

With :

[tex]g(z)=(\frac{sin(\alpha z)}{\alpha z})^2[/tex]

and

[tex]g(z)=\frac{1}{\pi}sin(\pi z)[/tex]

and so

[tex]g'(z)=cos(\pi z)[/tex]

Clearly there are zeros for m=0,1,2...and so the when [tex]z\rightarrow z_0[/tex]

we end up with the following residues:

[tex]\sum_{m=1}^\infty(-1)^{n-1} (\frac{sin m\alpha}{m\alpha})^2[/tex]

Now, the integral is [tex]2\pi i \sum Res[/tex]

Can you help me figure out how to get:

[tex]\sum_{m=1}^\infty(-1)^{n-1} (\frac{sin m\alpha}{m\alpha})^2=\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Essentially I need to figure how to get rid of the 'i' also figure out what the integral goes to...

Thanks!