bventer
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Hi, besides integration by parts, does anyone know of a simple integration trick to solve the integral (wrt x) of exp(x)*f'(x)?
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The discussion revolves around finding an alternative method to integrate the product of an exponential function and the derivative of another function, specifically the integral of exp(x)*f'(x). Participants explore various techniques, including integration by parts, and express a desire for a simpler or more clever approach due to the complexity of the function f(x).
Participants express a mix of agreement on the challenges posed by the complexity of f(x) and disagreement on whether a simpler method exists. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the existence of a clever integration technique.
Participants note the complexity of the function f(x) and its derivative, which may limit the effectiveness of standard integration techniques. There is also mention of the potential need for numerical methods or approximations, indicating limitations in finding an analytic solution.
Why not showing us what is f '(x) ?that doesn't really help me due to the complexity of the function f(x).
bventer said:Using integration by parts I get: exp(x)*f(x) - Int[exp(x)*f(x), dx]. But that doesn't really help me due to the complexity of the function f(x). I was hoping there might be a clever trick to exploit the fact that part of my integrand is a first derivative?
Ok, thanks for having a look MentallicMentallic said:Oh sorry, I missed the ' in f'(x) and thought you tried to find a solution to the integral of exf(x).
I can't think of another way to show it besides that technique, maybe someone else can.
bventer said:To JJacquelin: I you wish, see attached jpg (apologies, but I am not well versed in Latex)
y(H) is a quadratic: a0 + a1*H + a2*H^2Mentallic said:How is the y(H) function defined?
I doubt that a "clever trick" exists. By the way, the first derivative of what function ?I was hoping there might be a clever trick to exploit the fact that part of my integrand is a first derivative...
Yes, there is! It is precisely the "integration by parts", letting dv= f'(x)dx that you initially did.bventer said:Thanks JJacquelin, but I did say that I was hoping there might be a clever trick to exploit the fact that part of my integrand is a first derivative...