Intense trigonometric question

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving a relationship for the tangent function expressed in terms of binomial coefficients, specifically for any integer n. The original poster attempts to relate this to de Moivre's theorem and seeks guidance on how to approach the proof without arriving at a complete solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using de Moivre's theorem and the binomial theorem to expand expressions involving sine and cosine. There are questions about how to apply these expansions specifically to derive the tangent function. Some participants express confusion about the steps involved in the proof and seek further clarification.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various participants sharing insights and approaches. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of binomial expansion and the separation of real and imaginary parts, but there is no consensus on a complete method or solution yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the forum's rules, which discourage providing complete solutions. This has led to some hesitance in sharing detailed steps, as well as a focus on maintaining an exploratory dialogue.

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Homework Statement


prove that for any integer n

tannθ = ((n choose 1)tanθ - (n choose 3)tan^3θ + (n choose 5)tan^5θ)-.../ (( n choose 0) -(n choose 2)tan^2θ + (n choose 4)tan^4θ-...)

The first 3 numbers on top and bottom look like these however the sum and differences keep going, and you have to prove they are equal



Homework Equations


Demoivres
Induction



The Attempt at a Solution


I tried to use demoivres but all the terms seem to messing up, and if i use induction i get very weird numbers, I just would like an approach on this problem
 
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This is a very interesting problem. You were right that de Moivre's formula is involved, so we should write [itex]e^{in\theta}=\cos(n\theta)+i\sin(n\theta).[/itex]
But we also have [itex]e^{in\theta}=(\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta))^n.[/itex] Just expand this out (using the binomial theorem) and set these expressions equal to each other.
 
A. Bahat said:
This is a very interesting problem. You were right that de Moivre's formula is involved, so we should write [itex]e^{in\theta}=\cos(n\theta)+i\sin(n\theta).[/itex]
But we also have [itex]e^{in\theta}=(\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta))^n.[/itex] Just expand this out (using the binomial theorem) and set these expressions equal to each other.

Could you write it out for me I am still confused
 
By the binomial theorem, [tex](\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}\,\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ).[/tex] So we know that [tex]\cos(nθ)+i\sin(nθ)=\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}\,\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ).[/tex] The terms with even [itex]k[/itex] are real, while the terms with odd [itex]k[/itex] are imaginary. Now set the real part of the left-hand side (the cosine term) equal to the real part of the right-hand side (the sum going over even [itex]k[/itex]). Likewise, doing this with the imaginary parts will involve the sine term. This will give expressions for [itex]\cos(nθ)[/itex] and [itex]\sin(nθ)[/itex]. Then you can just take the quotient of these to get [itex]\tan(nθ)[/itex].
 
I see! Thanks for all your help, if you had time would you mind putting up the full explained proof. I have done demoivres before for cos and sin, but its a bit confusing for tan, do i make it sin/cos then do something I am sorry i just don't get how this will be used. I get the expansion just not how we can use it
 
Okay, since the real part of that sum on the right-hand side is [tex]\sum_{\substack{0\leq k\leq n\\k\text{ even}}}{n\choose k}\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ)[/tex] and the real part on the left-hand side is just [itex]\cos(nθ)[/itex], we have [tex]\cos(nθ)=\sum_{\substack{0\leq k\leq n\\k\text{ even}}}{n\choose k}\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ)={n\choose 0}\cos^n(θ)-{n\choose 2}\cos^{n-2}(θ)\sin^2(θ)+\cdots[/tex] (this sum obviously ends either on [itex]k=n-1[/itex] or [itex]k=n[/itex], depending on whether [itex]n[/itex] is even or odd).

The imaginary part is basically the same and gives you an expression for sine.
 
Last edited:
A. Bahat said:
Okay, since the real part of that sum on the right-hand side is [tex]\sum_{\substack{0\leq k\leq n\\k\text{ even}}}{n\choose k}\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ)[/tex] and the real part on the left-hand side is just [itex]\cos(nθ)[/itex], we have [tex]\cos(nθ)=\sum_{\substack{0\leq k\leq n\\k\text{ even}}}{n\choose k}\cos^{n-k}(θ)\cdot i^k\sin^k(θ)={n\choose 0}\cos^n(θ)-{n\choose 2}\cos^{n-2}(θ)\sin^2(θ)+\cdots[/tex] (this sum obviously ends either on [itex]k=n-1[/itex] or [itex]k=n[/itex], depending on whether [itex]n[/itex] is even or odd).
...
Have you read the rules for these Forums?

Under Homework Help it says:
On helping with questions: ... Under no circumstances should complete solutions be provided to a questioner, whether or not an attempt has been made.​
 
Sorry, I got ahead of myself! It took out a big chunk of my previous response. Is it okay now?
 
A. Bahat said:
Sorry, I got ahead of myself! It took out a big chunk of my previous response. Is it okay now?
Hopefully, what remains will be OK.
 

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