Interacting Fermion System Commutation

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the evaluation of a specific mathematical expression involving interacting fermion systems using second quantization. The expression in question is <0,0|a_{2 \uparrow} a_{1 \uparrow}a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{1 \uparrow}a_{2 \uparrow}a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}|0,0>=-1. The confusion arises from the sign conventions associated with fermionic operators acting on Fock states, as detailed in the referenced equations from the University of Florida's course material. The correct interpretation confirms that the expression evaluates to -1 due to these sign conventions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of second quantization in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with fermionic operators and their properties
  • Knowledge of Fock states and their representation
  • Ability to interpret mathematical expressions in quantum field theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the sign conventions for fermionic operators in quantum mechanics
  • Review the second quantization formalism in quantum field theory
  • Examine Fock space representations and their applications
  • Explore advanced topics in interacting fermion systems and their mathematical formulations
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in quantum mechanics, particularly those focusing on quantum field theory, second quantization, and fermionic systems. This discussion is beneficial for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of the mathematical intricacies involved in these topics.

Xyius
Messages
501
Reaction score
4
Problem Question
My question isn't an entire homework problem, but rather for a certain mathematical step in the problem which I assume to be very simple.

The problem is dealing with interacting fermion systems using second quantization formulas. I am essentially following my notes from class for this problem and the part I am stuck on is this.

&lt;0,0|a_{2 \uparrow} a_{1 \uparrow}a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{1 \uparrow}a_{2 \uparrow}a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}|0,0&gt;=-1

My question is, why is this equal to -1?

Attempt at Solution
Here is my logic on how to evaluate this.

a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}|0,0&gt;=|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;
then
a_{1 \uparrow}a_{2 \uparrow}|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;=|0,0&gt;
then
a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}|0,0&gt;=|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;
finally
a_{2 \uparrow} a_{1 \uparrow}|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;=|0,0&gt;
Thus all together I get 1, not -1. Why is this equal to -1?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Xyius said:
Here is my logic on how to evaluate this.

a_{1 \uparrow}^{\dagger}a_{2 \uparrow}^{\dagger}|0,0&gt;=|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;
then
a_{1 \uparrow}a_{2 \uparrow}|\uparrow \uparrow&gt;=|0,0&gt;
I believe the mistake is in the second equation above. There are sign conventions for Fermion operators operating on Fock states.

See equations 4, 5, and 6 here: http://www.phys.ufl.edu/~kevin/teaching/6646/03spring/2nd-quant.pdf
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Xyius

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 47 ·
2
Replies
47
Views
6K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K