Okay, i'm wondering if an investment that averages x% over the term of an investent and an investment with a fixed return of x% over the term of an investment are equivalent...I'm not really sure at all, and itas advised i can both explain and somehow graph this. Can anyone investigate my above proposition to see if it is warrented? If not, could you give any and all reasons why? I know that i have to consider simple fo compound sperately...but...yeah. I would love a coupel fo different people's responses, haha...i would love any response really. It would be a huge help. Thanks.