gamma5772
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I don't seem to be able to fully wrap my head around the equivalence of standard QM and 0+1 QFT. In particular, I am having difficulty with the relationship between the correlator in QFT, <T\phi(t_1) \phi(t_2)> and the propagator in QM, <x', t' |x,t>.
First of all, is there any relationship between the two?
Also, I just don't know how to interpret the QFT correlator, 0+1 or otherwise, so any help would be appreciated.
First of all, is there any relationship between the two?
Also, I just don't know how to interpret the QFT correlator, 0+1 or otherwise, so any help would be appreciated.