Interpretation of correlator in 0+1 QFT

[gamma5772]

I don't seem to be able to fully wrap my head around the equivalence of standard QM and 0+1 QFT. In particular, I am having difficulty with the relationship between the correlator in QFT, $$<T\phi(t_1) \phi(t_2)>$$ and the propagator in QM, $$<x', t' |x,t>$$.

First of all, is there any relationship between the two?

Also, I just don't know how to interpret the QFT correlator, 0+1 or otherwise, so any help would be appreciated.

 

[Avodyne]

I don't seem to be able to fully wrap my head around the equivalence of standard QM and 0+1 QFT. In particular, I am having difficulty with the relationship between the correlator in QFT, $$<T\phi(t_1) \phi(t_2)>$$ and the propagator in QM, $$<x', t' |x,t>$$.

First of all, is there any relationship between the two?

Also, I just don't know how to interpret the QFT correlator, 0+1 or otherwise, so any help would be appreciated.

There is no direct relation. In QM, your $\phi(t)$ would be the position operator $x(t)$ in the Heisenberg picture.

This relationship is explained in Srednicki's QFT text (draft version available free at his web page).