Interpretiing the Dolbeault operators
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zhentil
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Hmm, I'd prefer to interpret the differential of a function as a map on tangent spaces. Then the Dolbeault operators further clarify the interaction between the map and complex multiplication. Recall that a map from C to C is holomorphic if and only if [itex]\frac{d}{d\bar{z}}f(z)=0[/itex]. Phrased another way, the Jacobian of the map commutes with multiplication by i. If we then look at a map from C to C which is not necessarily holomorphic, we can decompose its Jacobian into components which commute/anticommute with complex multiplication.
Of course, one may attempt to extend this to your case, by defining holomorphic gradients and the like, but IMO it's clearer this way.
Of course, one may attempt to extend this to your case, by defining holomorphic gradients and the like, but IMO it's clearer this way.
Science Advisor
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zhentil said:Hmm, I'd prefer to interpret the differential of a function as a map on tangent spaces. Then the Dolbeault operators further clarify the interaction between the map and complex multiplication. Recall that a map from C to C is holomorphic if and only if [itex]\frac{d}{d\bar{z}}f(z)=0[/itex]. Phrased another way, the Jacobian of the map commutes with multiplication by i. If we then look at a map from C to C which is not necessarily holomorphic, we can decompose its Jacobian into components which commute/anticommute with complex multiplication.
Of course, one may attempt to extend this to your case, by defining holomorphic gradients and the like, but IMO it's clearer this way.
Thanks. I got the thought - maybe wrong - that in a particular conformal atlas of charts on a Riemann surface - the operation adx + bdy -> -bdx + a dy is well defined. It is something like a rotation by 90 degrees but there is no Riemannain metric. I guess it would be a rotation in isothermal coordinates.
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