Inverse in lie group, tangent space

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a property of the inverse mapping in the context of Lie groups, specifically relating to the tangent mapping at the identity element. Participants explore the implications of differentiable structures and tangent vectors within the framework of Lie groups.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of the tangent mapping and its application to the inverse mapping of Lie groups. There are attempts to relate the group structure to the behavior of tangent vectors in chart images. Some participants suggest using differentiable curves to represent tangent vectors and explore differentiation of group operations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing hints and exploring various approaches to the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the differentiation of group operations, but there is no explicit consensus on the proof or resolution of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the complexity of the problem due to the abstract nature of Lie groups and the need for clarity in the relationship between tangent vectors and group operations. There is an acknowledgment of the challenge in applying general formalism to specific cases.

jostpuur
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Homework Statement



I'm supposed to prove, that when G is a Lie group, i:G\to G is the inverse mapping i(g)=g^{-1}, then

<br /> i_{*e} v = -v\quad\quad\forall \; v\in T_e G<br />

where i_{*e}:T_e G \to T_e G is the tangent mapping.

Homework Equations



I'm not sure how standard the tangent mapping notation or terminology is, so here's how it is defined on our course. If \phi:M\to N is a smooth function between two manifolds, then for each p\in M

<br /> \phi_{*p}:T_p M\to T_{\phi(p)} N,\quad\quad (\phi_{*p} v) f = v(f\circ \phi)\quad<br /> \forall \; v\in T_p M \quad f:N\to\mathbb{R}<br />

Quick googling revealed that this is often given other notations similar to derivative notations.

The Attempt at a Solution



We can choose some chart x:U\to\mathbb{R}^n, where U\subset G is some environment of the e\in G, so that x(e)=0. After simply writing down some definitions, I was able to show that the result follows if we know

<br /> \partial_j (x_k\circ i\circ x^{-1})(0) = -\delta_{jk}<br />

Here x^{-1}:(x(U)\subset \mathbb{R}^n)\to U is the inverse of the x, x_k:U\to\mathbb{R} is a component mapping of the x, and \partial_j is a normal partial derivative in an Euclidean space.

This is where I ran out of ideas. I have no clue how the group structure gets related to what happens in the chart images. I know that g\mapsto g^{-1} is supposed to be smooth, but this merely justifies the existence of the partial derivative in the above equation.

(btw. I will not return any solution anywhere. I'm preparing to an exam by doing old exercises)
 
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You can think of tangent vectors as represented by differentiable curves through e, the group identity. So pick g(s) to be a representative of v, i.e. g(0)=e, g'(0)=v. Now g(s)*i(g(s))=e. Differentiate both sides, put s=0 and get t+i_*(t)=0.
 
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Your hint certainly pushed in the right direction, but I still have some problems with this. One way to prove

<br /> i_{*e} v = -v<br />

would be to show

<br /> vf = -v(f\circ i)<br />

for arbitrary smooth f:U\to\mathbb{R} on some environment U\subset G of e\in G.

If g:I\to G has been chosen so that 0\in I, g(0)=e, and \dot{g}_0 = v, then the left side is

<br /> \dot{g}_0 f = D_t (f\circ g)(t)\Big|_{t=0}<br />

and the right side is

<br /> -\dot{g}_0 (f\circ i) = -D_t(f\circ i\circ g)(t)\Big|_{t=0}.<br />

According to you hint, it looks like I should start computing something like this

<br /> 0 = D_t f\big(g(t)\cdot (i\circ g)(t)\big)\Big|_{t=0} = \cdots<br />

But I don't know how to do anything to that. How do you get the derivation inside the f?

I would know how to compute

<br /> D_t\Big((f\circ g)(t)\; (f\circ i\circ g)(t)\Big)\Big|_{t=0} =\cdots = f(e)\big( vf + (i_{*e} v) f\big)<br />

for example, but for this there does not seem to be any obvious reason why this would be zero.
 
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If you think of the Lie group as a matrix group, then the argument I gave is not just a hint, it IS the proof. I'm having more than a little trouble wrapping my head around your more abstract formalism.
 
Dick said:
If you think of the Lie group as a matrix group, then the argument I gave is not just a hint, it IS the proof.

I can see this.

I'm having more than a little trouble wrapping my head around your more abstract formalism.

This is the rigor general formalism. In general Lie group is just a differentiable manifold with a group structure. Tangent vectors are linear mappings that map smooth functions into real numbers.

In fact the problem comes down to this:

If \gamma^1 and \gamma^2 are some smooth paths I\to G on some Lie group, so that \gamma^1(0)=\gamma^2(0)=e, then we get a new smooth path

<br /> t\mapsto \gamma^1(t)\cdot \gamma^2(t)<br />

by multiplying the images.

Is the equation

<br /> \dot{(\gamma^1\cdot\gamma^2)}_0 = \dot{\gamma}^1_0 + \dot{\gamma}^2_0<br />

true? (okey, that dot looks horrible, when its trying to be above both of the gammas...)

It seems to be, but I don't know the proof. Once this is clear, the previous problem becomes solved as you showed.
 

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