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Is any energy required to change the phase of a wave-function?

  1. Jul 3, 2012 #1
    Changing the phase of a wave-function

    wave-function is a probability amplitude in quantum mechanics describing the quantum state of a particle and how it behaves.

    when we change the phase of a wave-function what are we changing? are we changing the probability distribution wrt time-space?

    the change in phase (between the wave-functions travelling different paths) causes the changes in interference pattern

    is any energy required to change the phase of a wave-function?
    or
    when a wave-function changes phase is there an exchange of energy (with the instrument that caused the phase change)?
     
    Last edited: Jul 3, 2012
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 3, 2012 #2

    Simon Bridge

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    Hello again - can you come up with an example of a process changing the phase of a wavefunction? Once done, you will have the answer to your problem.

    Wavefunctions can be represented by a phasor in a manner similar to classical waves. The phase of the wave at a point in space and time is the angle the phasor makes to the real-number axis.
    This is not correct - it is the difference in phase between phasors calculated for different paths that tells us the amount of interference. This is explained in the Feynman lectures I have directed to you to in your other thread.
     
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