Is Author Wrong? Solving a Homework Equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the accuracy of the author's equation for Fourier series, specifically the function f(x) = 0.5(a_0) + Σ(a_n)cos(nπx / L). Participants assert that the author incorrectly omitted the variable L in the equation, as evidenced by examples where L is defined as 2 and π in different contexts. The consensus is that the author indeed made an error by not including L in the equation, leading to confusion regarding the correct formulation of the Fourier series.

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Homework Statement


is the author wrong ? i was told that the f(x) = 0.5(a_0) +Σ(a_n)cos (nπx / L ) ... but , in the example(photo2) , the author ignore the L , which the author gave f(x) = 0.5(a_0) +Σ(a_n)cos (nπx ) +...

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


P/ s : i have tried to make some correction beside the working , is it correct ?[/B]
 

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Last edited:
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Don't know what photo 2 is, but in 154002 the author carefully uses L = 2.
And in 1550002 L is ##\pi##
 
BvU said:
Don't know what photo 2 is, but in 154002 the author carefully uses L = 2.
And in 1550002 L is ##\pi##
So, the author is wrong, right? In155002, the L should be 2, right??
 
If 150 says ##n\pi\x\over L## and 154 says ##n\pi\over 2##, doesn't that mean the author did take L = 2 ?

As for 155, I'm not so sure: does the definition in your book agree with

The http://www.math24.net/definition-of-fourier-series.html of the function f(x) is given by
$$f(x)={a_0\over 2}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \{a_n\cos nx+b_n\sin nx\}$$
where the Fourier coefficients ##a_0##, ##a_n##, and ##b_n## are defined by the integrals$$
a_0={1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\, dx,\quad a_n={1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\cos nx\,dx,\quad b_n{1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\sin nx\,dx$$
 
BvU said:
If 150 says ##n\pi\x\over L## and 154 says ##n\pi\over 2##, doesn't that mean the author did take L = 2 ?

As for 155, I'm not so sure: does the definition in your book agree with

The http://www.math24.net/definition-of-fourier-series.html of the function f(x) is given by
$$f(x)={a_0\over 2}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \{a_n\cos nx+b_n\sin nx\}$$
where the Fourier coefficients ##a_0##, ##a_n##, and ##b_n## are defined by the integrals$$
a_0={1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\, dx,\quad a_n={1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\cos nx\,dx,\quad b_n{1\over \pi} \int _{−\pi}^\pi f(x)\sin nx\,dx$$
no , as you can see it 150 , the author gave $$f(x)={a_0\over 2}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \{a_n\cos nπx / L+b_n\sin nπx\/L}$$
 

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