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Yes. This is one way to do it. Or you could just treat n as an algebraic parameter, and do it only once.JI567 said:For getting b1, b2,b3 and b4 do I just multiply the f(0) with sin(nπx) and integrate 4 times? with n being 1,2,3 and 4 consecutively?
These questions indicate to me that you have not yet mastered the basics of Fourier series. You need to go back and review your notes and your textbook. Also, another good reference is section 9.2 of Advanced Engineering Mathematics by Kreizig. You are not going to be able to complete the solution to this problem until you better understand how to apply Fourier Series. Unfortunately, Physics Forums is not an appropriate venue for a complete tutorial on Fourier Series.My question is for integration of Bn the general formula is 2/L* integration of f(0)*sin(nπx) to give it the oddness. So as the sin function is already there why did we still multiply with another sin(mπx)?
Chet