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Yes. Nicely done.JI567 said:## \frac {1} {π} \ ## ( ## \frac {2n} {n^2-4} \ ##)
so only when n = 1 my Bn will be the result of 2 ## \int_0^1 (cos(2πx) - \frac {1} {π^2} \ ##sin(πx)) * sin(nπx). When n = any other odd numbers except for 1 then Bn will be the result of 2 ## \int_0^1 (cos(2πx) \ ## sin(nπx). For n otherwise Bn = 0. Is this correct...?
So,
##B_1= -\frac{4}{3\pi} - \frac {1} {π^2} \ ##
##B_n=\frac {4} {π} \left(\frac {n} {n^2-4}\right)## for all odd n≥3
##B_n=0## for all even n.
Chet