MHB Is B Equal to A³ Given Symmetric and Invertible Matrices?

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The discussion centers on whether, given symmetric and invertible matrices A and B, the equation AB⁻¹AAᵀ = I implies that B = A³. The solution confirms that through a series of matrix manipulations, it can be shown that B indeed equals A³. Additionally, it clarifies that while A being symmetric and invertible does not mean A⁻¹ equals A, this equality only holds for specific cases like the identity matrix or reflections. The approach of multiplying by various inverses to solve the equation is deemed correct. The conclusion emphasizes the importance of understanding matrix properties in such equations.
Yankel
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Hello all,

If A and B are both squared invertible matrices and A is also symmetric and:

\[AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I\]

Can I say that

\[B=A^{3}\] ?

In every iteration of the solution, I have multiplied both sides by a different matrix. At first by the inverse of A, then the inverse of the transpose, etc...Is this the correct approach to solve this ? Thank you in advance !

Another question. If A in both symmetric and invertible, it doesn't mean that the inverse of A is equal to A, right ?
 
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Yankel said:
Hello all,

If A and B are both squared invertible matrices and A is also symmetric and:

\[AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I\]

Can I say that

\[B=A^{3}\] ?

In every iteration of the solution, I have multiplied both sides by a different matrix. At first by the inverse of A, then the inverse of the transpose, etc...Is this the correct approach to solve this ? Thank you in advance !

Sure.
With $A$ symmetric and invertible, we have indeed:
$$
AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad AB^{-1}AA=I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad A^{-1}AB^{-1}AA=A^{-1}I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad B^{-1}AA=A^{-1} \\
\quad\Rightarrow\quad BB^{-1}AAA=BA^{-1}A
\quad\Rightarrow\quad AAA=B
\quad\Rightarrow\quad B=A^3
$$

Yankel said:
Another question. If A in both symmetric and invertible, it doesn't mean that the inverse of A is equal to A, right ?

Nope.
That will only be the case if $A$ is either identity or a reflection (only eigenvalues $\pm 1$).
 
Thanks !
 
I am studying the mathematical formalism behind non-commutative geometry approach to quantum gravity. I was reading about Hopf algebras and their Drinfeld twist with a specific example of the Moyal-Weyl twist defined as F=exp(-iλ/2θ^(μν)∂_μ⊗∂_ν) where λ is a constant parametar and θ antisymmetric constant tensor. {∂_μ} is the basis of the tangent vector space over the underlying spacetime Now, from my understanding the enveloping algebra which appears in the definition of the Hopf algebra...

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