MHB Is B Equal to A³ Given Symmetric and Invertible Matrices?

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SUMMARY

In the discussion, it is established that if A and B are both square invertible matrices and A is symmetric, then the equation \(AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I\) leads to the conclusion that \(B=A^{3}\). The approach of multiplying both sides by various matrices, including the inverse of A and its transpose, is confirmed as correct. Additionally, it is clarified that a symmetric and invertible matrix A does not imply that its inverse is equal to A, except in specific cases such as the identity matrix or reflections.

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Yankel
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Hello all,

If A and B are both squared invertible matrices and A is also symmetric and:

\[AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I\]

Can I say that

\[B=A^{3}\] ?

In every iteration of the solution, I have multiplied both sides by a different matrix. At first by the inverse of A, then the inverse of the transpose, etc...Is this the correct approach to solve this ? Thank you in advance !

Another question. If A in both symmetric and invertible, it doesn't mean that the inverse of A is equal to A, right ?
 
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Yankel said:
Hello all,

If A and B are both squared invertible matrices and A is also symmetric and:

\[AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I\]

Can I say that

\[B=A^{3}\] ?

In every iteration of the solution, I have multiplied both sides by a different matrix. At first by the inverse of A, then the inverse of the transpose, etc...Is this the correct approach to solve this ? Thank you in advance !

Sure.
With $A$ symmetric and invertible, we have indeed:
$$
AB^{-1}AA^{T}=I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad AB^{-1}AA=I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad A^{-1}AB^{-1}AA=A^{-1}I
\quad\Rightarrow\quad B^{-1}AA=A^{-1} \\
\quad\Rightarrow\quad BB^{-1}AAA=BA^{-1}A
\quad\Rightarrow\quad AAA=B
\quad\Rightarrow\quad B=A^3
$$

Yankel said:
Another question. If A in both symmetric and invertible, it doesn't mean that the inverse of A is equal to A, right ?

Nope.
That will only be the case if $A$ is either identity or a reflection (only eigenvalues $\pm 1$).
 
Thanks !
 
I am studying the mathematical formalism behind non-commutative geometry approach to quantum gravity. I was reading about Hopf algebras and their Drinfeld twist with a specific example of the Moyal-Weyl twist defined as F=exp(-iλ/2θ^(μν)∂_μ⊗∂_ν) where λ is a constant parametar and θ antisymmetric constant tensor. {∂_μ} is the basis of the tangent vector space over the underlying spacetime Now, from my understanding the enveloping algebra which appears in the definition of the Hopf algebra...

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