Is Causality Preserved in Quantum Mechanics?

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entropy1 said:
So, if there is no realism, a particle may not even exist if not measured? What does the qualification 'local' mean in this context?
That is a good question. Adopting a no realism/epistemic interpretation does appear to avoid ontic, non-local causal influences (and maintain a fully relativistic account of physical goings-on). But, at the same time, it's not clear that a non-realist interpretation actually saves locality because in adopting that kind of interpretation, the distinction between 'local' and 'non-local' would not even appear to apply.
 
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bohm2 said:
That is a good question. Adopting a no realism/epistemic interpretation does appear to avoid ontic, non-local causal influences (and maintain a fully relativistic account of physical goings-on). But, at the same time, it's not clear that a non-realist interpretation actually saves locality because in adopting that kind of interpretation, the distinction between 'local' and 'non-local' would not even appear to apply.
Thank you. It seems to me that, if you don't measure the event, there is at least no 'informational' connection established between the observer and the event - concerning a measurement. (?)
 
The initial question has been answered a long time ago. Yes, QM is causal.

Time to close the thread.
 
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