If we consider at time t=0 a particle at x=0 we get a gaussian distribution for time t>0 via the Schroedinger equation.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Hence QM predicts that the particle can have travelled some distance at t>0 with given probabilities. see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uncertainty_principle

However in dBB the speed of the particle is given by the guiding equation, namely the derivative of the wavefunction, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Broglie–Bohm_theory

This derivative is 0 forall t at x=0,

hence the dBB-particle does not move at all, and hence dBB cannot reproduce QM results.

What is wrong with this reasoning, since apparently a theorem (which?) proves that if dBB was refuted then QM were refuted too https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=459148

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# Is dBB reproducing quantum results ?

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