Is f(x) Its Own Inverse for Any Value of a?

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SUMMARY

The function f(x) = a + 4/(x - a) does not serve as its own inverse for any value of a. The inverse function is incorrectly stated as f-1(x) = (a^2 - ax - 4)/(a - x), which does not satisfy the properties of inverse functions. The discussion concludes that the function is neither its own inverse nor the reciprocal of its own inverse for any value of a, contradicting several proposed statements regarding its behavior.

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f(x)=a+4/(x-a)
f-1(x)=(a^2-ax-4)/(a-x)

Which of the following is true?
The function is the opposite of its own inverse for any value of a.
The function is its own inverse for positive values of a only.
The function is the reciprocal of its own inverse for positive values of a only.
The function is its own inverse for negative values of a only.
The function is its own inverse for any value of a.
 
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Re: Inverse functions problem help please

What has your investigation led you to find?
 
bcasted said:
f(x)=a+4/(x-a)
f-1(x)=(a^2-ax-4)/(a-x)

...

If this equation: $$f^{-1}(x)=\frac{a^2-ax-4}{a-x}$$
is meant to be the equation of the reverse function then this equation is false.
 

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