Is g integrable if it equals f at all but a finite number of points?

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The discussion centers on the integrability of a function g that equals another function f at all but a finite number of points within a rectangle A. It is established that if f is integrable, then g is also integrable, and the integrals of both functions over A are equal. The Riemann integral is referenced, suggesting that the differences at the finite points do not affect the overall integrability. The approach involves analyzing the impact of these points on the upper and lower integrals. Ultimately, the conclusion is that g maintains the same integral value as f despite the finite discrepancies.
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i don't know where to start on this problem. could someone help me please? thanks.

let f: A -> R be an integrable function, where A is a rectangle. If g = f at all but a finite number of points, show that g is integrable and \int_{A}f = \int_{A}g.
 
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What about g - f?
 
jeanf said:
i don't know where to start on this problem. could someone help me please? thanks.

let f: A -> R be an integrable function, where A is a rectangle. If g = f at all but a finite number of points, show that g is integrable and \int_{A}f = \int_{A}g.
Do you mean the Reimann integral? For each value that they are not equal consider a small interval (small enough that only one point of inequality is included). Then |Sup(f)-Sup(g)|=|f(x*)-g(x*)|>0. Then consider the effect of all the points of inequallity on the upper integrals, then likewise for the lower integrals.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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