- #1

Rearden

- 16

- 0

I was wondering: if a space is invariant under Poincare transformations, does that mean it

*has*to be Minkowski space? Or could it have some further isometries?

By the same token, if a space is invariant under the orthogonal transformations, does it

*have*to be Euclidean?

I hope I've been clear; I don't really know how to start tackling this problem, so any help will be much appreciated.

Thanks!