nobahar
- 482
- 2
Hello!
This is probably a really asinine question.
I was trying to identify an area of a ring, namely a really small ring such that its near enough the circumference of a circle. I thought I could approach it in two ways.
The first was to subtract a smaller circle of radius r1 form a circle of larger radius r2:
\pi r_{2}^{2} - \pi r_{1}^{2} = \pi (r_{2}^{2} - r_{1}^{2})
Using the limit r1 tends to r2, this should be a ring with an area equal to that which I could obtain from using the circumference of a circle of radius r2 multiplied by a tiny amount (essentially giving it some thickness:
This is only approximately a ring:
2\pi r_{2} (r_{2}-r_{1})
But in the limit it would be a ring:
2\pi r_{2} \left dr
Are the two equal? Conceptually, it seems they should be.
This was my reasoning:
\pi r_{2}^{2} - \pi r_{1}^{2} = \pi (r_{2}^{2} - r_{1}^{2}) = \pi (r_{2} + r_{1})(r_{2} - r_{1})
In the limit:
r_{2} - r_{1} Approaches 0, but is some infinitesimally small difference dr, which is explicitly non-zero.
The summation component:
r_{2} + r_{1} Seems to approach 2.
So we have:
\lim \pi (r_{2} + r_{1})(r_{2} - r_{1}) = \pi(2r_{2}}{dr}
Is it considered to equal 2 or is it explicitly not 2 as the difference component is explicitly not 0?
I am confused, is there an error in my reasoning?
Any help appreciated as this is very frustrating!
Thanks in advance,
Nobahar
This is probably a really asinine question.
I was trying to identify an area of a ring, namely a really small ring such that its near enough the circumference of a circle. I thought I could approach it in two ways.
The first was to subtract a smaller circle of radius r1 form a circle of larger radius r2:
\pi r_{2}^{2} - \pi r_{1}^{2} = \pi (r_{2}^{2} - r_{1}^{2})
Using the limit r1 tends to r2, this should be a ring with an area equal to that which I could obtain from using the circumference of a circle of radius r2 multiplied by a tiny amount (essentially giving it some thickness:
This is only approximately a ring:
2\pi r_{2} (r_{2}-r_{1})
But in the limit it would be a ring:
2\pi r_{2} \left dr
Are the two equal? Conceptually, it seems they should be.
This was my reasoning:
\pi r_{2}^{2} - \pi r_{1}^{2} = \pi (r_{2}^{2} - r_{1}^{2}) = \pi (r_{2} + r_{1})(r_{2} - r_{1})
In the limit:
r_{2} - r_{1} Approaches 0, but is some infinitesimally small difference dr, which is explicitly non-zero.
The summation component:
r_{2} + r_{1} Seems to approach 2.
So we have:
\lim \pi (r_{2} + r_{1})(r_{2} - r_{1}) = \pi(2r_{2}}{dr}
Is it considered to equal 2 or is it explicitly not 2 as the difference component is explicitly not 0?
I am confused, is there an error in my reasoning?
Any help appreciated as this is very frustrating!
Thanks in advance,
Nobahar