Is \(\nabla \times (\phi \nabla \phi) = 0\) for a Differentiable Scalar Field?

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cristina89
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How to prove that [itex]\nabla[/itex] x ([itex]\phi[/itex][itex]\nabla[/itex][itex]\phi[/itex]) = 0?
([itex]\phi[/itex] is a differentiable scalar field)

I'm a bit confused by this "differentiable scalar field" thing...
 
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Are you saying that you do not know what a "differentiable scalar field" means? A "scalar" is simply a number, rather than a vector. This is just saying that [itex]\Phi(x, y, z)[/itex] is a (differentiable) function that returns a number for each point (x,y,z)- exactly the kind of function you are used to working with!

And, of course, [itex]\nabla \Phi[/itex] is the vector function
[tex]\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial x}\vec{i}+ \frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial y}\vec{j}+ \frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial z}\vec{k}[/tex]

so that [itex]\Phi\nabla\Phi[/itex] is that vector multiplied by the number [itex]\Phi[/itex]:
[tex]\Phi\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial x}\vec{i}+ \Phi\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial y}\vec{j}+ \Phi\frac{\partial\Phi}{\partial z}\vec{k}[/tex]
so is a "vector valued" function- it returns that vector at each point (x, y, z).

Finally,
[tex]\nabla\times(\Phi\nabla\Phi)[/tex]
is the "curl" of that vector valued function.
 
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I like Serena said:
Hi!

The way to proof such an expression is to write it out into x, y, and z components and simplify it (as HallsofIvy is suggesting).

As an alternative you can use the curl identities that you can find for instance on wiki:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curl_(mathematics)#Identities

Thank you! Just figured out how to solve this!