Is the Function Analytic and Where?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the analyticity of three functions: a) \( f(x) = \frac{e^z}{z^2 + 4} \), b) \( f(z) = \frac{\text{conj}(z)}{|z|^2} \), and c) \( \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{e^z}{3^n} (2z-4)^n \). Function a) is analytic everywhere except at \( z = \pm 2i \), while function b) is analytic everywhere except at the origin. Function c) is analytic within the disk defined by \( 0 < |2z - 4| < 6 \). The discussion also highlights the use of the ratio test for function c) and the Cauchy-Riemann equations for functions a) and b).

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Homework Statement



Determine if the function is analytic and sketch where it's analytic.

a) [tex]f(x) = \frac {e^z}{z^2 + 4}[/tex]

b) [tex]f(z) = \frac {conj(z)}{|z|^2}[/tex]

c) [tex]\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {e^z}{3^n} (2z-4)^n[/tex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



a) [tex]e^z[/tex] is analytic everywhere so [tex]f(x) = \frac {e^z}{z^2 + 4}[/tex] is analytic everywhere except at

[tex]z^2 = (x + yi)^2 = -4[/tex]

I tried separating the function into [tex]f(x,y) = u(x,y) + i*v(x,y)[/tex] but get a very complex polynomial when I try to get rid of the imaginary part in the denominator for example:

[tex]\frac {e^x (cos(y) + i*sin(y)}{(x+yi)^2 + 4} * \frac{(x-yi)^2 + 4}{(x-yi)^2 + 4}[/tex]

does not work for me

b)

[tex]f(z) = \frac{conj(z)}{ |z|^2}[/tex]

[tex]f(z) = \frac{1}{z}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{ x+yi}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{x - yi} {x^2 + y ^2}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{x}{x^2 + y ^2} - \frac {yi}{x^2 + y ^2}[/tex]

[tex]since \frac{du}{dx} u(x,y) = \frac{dv}{dy} u(x,y)[/tex]

and [tex]\frac{dv}{dx} u(x,y) = - \frac{dv}{dx} u(x,y)[/tex]

the function is analytic everywhere except at the origin.

d) After using the ratio test, the result I get is

[tex]|\frac{1}{3} (2z - 4) |[/tex]

[tex]\frac {1}{3} |2z - 4|[/tex]

so the function is analytic on the disk [tex]0 < |2z - 4| < 6[/tex] for all values n
 
Last edited:
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squaremeplease said:
a) [tex]e^z[/tex] is analytic everywhere so [tex]f(x) = \frac {e^z}{z^2 + 4}[/tex] is analytic everywhere except at

[tex]z^2 = (x + yi)^2 = -4[/tex]

Right, so [itex]f(z)[/itex] is analytic everywhere except at [itex]z=\pm2i[/itex]

I tried separating the function into [tex]f(x,y) = u(x,y) + i*v(x,y)[/tex] but get a very complex polynomial when I try to get rid of the imaginary part in the denominator for example:

[tex]\frac {e^x (cos(y) + i*sin(y)}{(x+yi)^2 + 4} * \frac{(x-yi)^2 + 4}{(x-yi)^2 + 4}[/tex]

does not work for me

I'm not sure why you'd want to do it this way, since you've already found the answer using a much easier method, but if you want to be a masochist about it, this method should work fine as well.

[tex]\left[(x+yi)^2 + 4\right]\left[(x-yi)^2 + 4\right]=(x+iy)^2(x-iy)^2+4(x+iy)^2+4(x-iy)^2+16=(x^2+y^2)^2+8(x^2-y^2)+16[/tex]

and so on...

[tex]since \frac{du}{dx} u(x,y) = \frac{dv}{dy} u(x,y)[/tex]

and [tex]\frac{dv}{dx} u(x,y) = - \frac{dv}{dx} u(x,y)[/tex]

the function is analytic everywhere except at the origin.

You mean, "since [itex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}[/itex] and [itex]\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=-\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}[/itex] except at the origin, where [itex]u[/itex], [itex]v[/itex] and their partial derivatives do not exist, the function is analytic everywhere except at the origin", right?
d) After using the ratio test, the result I get is

[tex]|\frac{1}{3} (2z - 4) |[/tex]

[tex]\frac {1}{3} |2z - 4|[/tex]

so the function is analytic on the disk [tex]0 < |2z - 4| < 6[/tex] for all values n

Where is the '6' coming from?
 
Last edited:

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