Is the gcd function symmetric?

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SUMMARY

The greatest common divisor (gcd) function is symmetric, meaning that gcd(x, y) is equal to gcd(y, x) for any integers x and y. This is proven by the definition of gcd, where if gcd(x, y) equals d, then both x and y can be expressed as multiples of d. The proof demonstrates that the order of the inputs does not affect the result, confirming that gcd(10, 5) equals gcd(5, 10), both yielding 5.

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iamsmooth
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Just a quick theory question. I'd assume it is, but usually the bigger number goes first.

e.g. gcd(10, 5) = 2

but does gcd (5, 10) = 2?

My guess is yes.

Thanks for the help.
 
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Yes. This is apparent from the definition of the words "greatest" and "common".
 
My input is probably trivial but I thought it would be nice to prove it formally.

We need : gcd(x,y) = gcd(y,x)

Suppose gcd(x,y) = d. Then x = nd and y = md for some integers n,m where gcd(n,m) = 1.

So gcd(y,x) = gcd (md,nd) = d because gcd(m,n) =1.

We have shown for all x,y that gcd(x,y) = gcd(y,x).

P.S.
Hopefully no silly errors. -_-'''
 

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