Is the Maxwell-Chern-Simons Action Gauge-Invariant?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Maybe_Memorie
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Theory
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the gauge invariance of the Maxwell-Chern-Simons action, specifically focusing on the Chern-Simons action in three-dimensional space-time and its implications in gauge theory. Participants are exploring the properties of the action and the equations of motion derived from it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the gauge invariance of the Chern-Simons action and to derive the equations of motion for the Maxwell-Chern-Simons action. They raise questions about the meaning of "gauge equivalent to a trivial solution" and express uncertainty regarding the justification of a specific transformation related to the equations of motion.

Discussion Status

Some participants are actively engaging with the original poster's queries, while others have expressed frustration with the lack of responses. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts to clarify concepts and explore the mathematical framework without reaching a consensus on the issues raised.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of gauge theory and the implications of gauge invariance, with some expressing confusion over specific terminology and mathematical justifications. There is an indication of a need for further clarification on the concepts involved.

Maybe_Memorie
Messages
346
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



##(a)## Consider the following action in three space-time dimensions
##S_{CS}=\displaystyle \int d^3x\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu \partial_\nu A_\rho##
It is known as the Chern-Simons action.

Demonstrate that it is gauge-invariant.

Show that any solution to the equations of motion for the above action is gauge-equivalent to a trivial solution.

##(b)## Find the equations of motion for the following Maxwell-Chern-Simons action:
##S=-\frac{1}{4e^2}\displaystyle \int d^3x F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu} + \displaystyle \int d^3x\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu \partial_\nu A_\rho##

Show that each component of ##F_{\mu\nu}## satisfies the Klein-Gordon equation.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
##(a)## The action is gauge invariant if it is invariant under the transformation ##A_\mu \rightarrow A_\mu + \partial_\mu \Lambda##, where ##\Lambda## is a function of the space-time coordinates. Under this transformation, ##S_{CS} \rightarrow S_{CS}' = k \displaystyle \int d^3x \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho} (A_\mu + \partial_\mu \Lambda) \partial_\nu (A_\rho + \partial_\rho \Lambda)##

##= k \displaystyle \int d^3x \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(A_\mu \partial_\nu A_\rho + A_\mu\partial_\nu \partial_rho \Lambda + \partial_\mu \Lambda\partial_\nu A_\rho + \partial_\mu \Lambda \partial_\nu \partial_\rho \Lambda)##

## =S_{CS} + k \displaystyle \int d^3x \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(A_\mu\partial_\nu \partial_rho \Lambda + \partial_\mu \Lambda\partial_\nu A_\rho + \partial_\mu \Lambda \partial_\nu \partial_\rho \Lambda)##

##(*)## Note that ##\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu\partial_\nu \partial_\rho \Lambda = - \epsilon^{\mu\rho\nu}A_\mu\partial_\nu \partial_\rho \Lambda## by anti-symmetry of ##\epsilon##
## =- \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu\partial_\rho \partial_\nu \Lambda## after renaming indicies
## = - \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu\partial_\nu \partial_\rho \Lambda## due to the symmetry ##\partial_\nu \partial_\rho=\partial_\rho \partial_\nu##
##=0##.

Same argument holds for the last term in the integrand and we are left with ##S_{CS}'=S_{CS} + k \displaystyle \int d^3x \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}\partial_\mu \Lambda \partial_\nu A_\rho##

Applying the product rule backwards and using the same argument as above in ##(*)## we find that ## \displaystyle \int d^3x \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}\partial_\mu \Lambda \partial_\nu A_\rho = \displaystyle \int d^3x \partial_\mu (\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho} \Lambda \partial_\nu A_\rho)##

Applying the divergence theorem this becomes ##\displaystyle \int dS n_\mu \epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho} \Lambda \partial_\nu A_\rho##, where ##n_\mu## is a normal vector pointing outward from the surface, which is a surface integral equal to ##0## under the assumption that the fields fall off sufficiently fast at infinity. Hence the action is gauge-invariant.

The Lagrangian for this action is ##\mathcal{L}_{CS}=\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}A_\mu \partial_\nu A_\rho##. I'm not going to write out the full procedure for getting the equations of motion, but we find that they are
##k\epsilon^{\rho\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}=0##

I am unsure what the phrase "gauge equivalent to a trivial solution" means. I know that the equations of motion are gauge-invariant so nothing will change, but I don't really know what it's asking me to do.##(b)## Again, not going through finding the e.o.m, but we find that they are ##\partial_\mu F^{\mu\nu} + ke^2\epsilon^{\nu\alpha\beta}F_{\alpha\beta}=0##

The Klein-Gordon equation is ##(\partial_\mu \partial^\mu + m^2)\phi=0##. I was reading a paper on this theory and it said this can be done by writing ##\tilde{F^\mu}=\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}F_{\nu\rho}## and then the e.o.m. can be written as ##(\partial^\nu \partial_\nu + (ke^2)^2)\tilde{F^\mu}=0##. I have no idea why this is justified.Any help on the two issues above would be very appreciated. Thank you.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Bump
 
Bump
 
Bump
 
Bump, but I'm guessing there's no point. This is the last time I'll do it.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
8K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
5K
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K