Is There a Faster Way to Prove Part (b) Using Radon-Nykodim?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Bacle2
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    App Simplifying
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving part (b) of a problem involving the Radon-Nykodim theorem in the context of measure theory. The participants confirm that for a measure-triple (X, m, μ) and a measurable function f: X → ℝ, the measure v(B) defined as μ(f⁻¹(B)) is indeed a measure on the Borel subsets of ℝ. They explore the relationship between the integral of a Borel-measurable function g and the composition of g with f, specifically stating that ∫ℝ (g dv) equals ∫X (gof) dμ. The participants seek a more efficient method for proving this relationship, expressing concerns about the length of the Radon-Nykodim approach.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theory concepts, specifically measure-triples and Borel sets.
  • Familiarity with the Radon-Nykodim theorem and its applications.
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, including monotone convergence and step functions.
  • Proficiency in working with measurable functions and their properties.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Radon-Nykodim theorem in detail, focusing on its proof and applications in measure theory.
  • Explore corollaries related to the Radon-Nykodim theorem that may simplify proofs.
  • Review integration techniques for measurable functions, particularly the use of step functions and monotone convergence.
  • Investigate alternative proofs for the equality ∫ℝ (g dv) = ∫X (gof) dμ using different measure-theoretic approaches.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, graduate students in mathematics, and researchers in measure theory who are looking to deepen their understanding of the Radon-Nykodim theorem and its applications in integration.

Bacle2
Science Advisor
Messages
1,089
Reaction score
10
Hi, I'm trying to work this out. Just a small question:

Let (X, m, μ) be a measure-triple (X a set; m a sigma-algebra, μ

a measure) , and let,

f:X-->ℝ be measurable. For B a Borel set, define :

v(B):=μ(f-1(B)). Then show:

a)v is a measure in the Borel subsets of R , and

b)If g: ℝ-->[0 , oo) is any Borel-measurable function on R,

∫ℝ (gdv) = ∫X (gof)dμ

First one is easy, but my method for b seems too long b). I

am trying to work this with Radon-Nykodim theorem. I'm pretty sure we can pull back

the measure on R to have the absolute continuity condition satisfied, and same thing

for the sigma-finiteness, i.e., by pulling back the Borel measure on R.

I'm just curious as to whether there is a faster way of doing this problem.

TIA
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It's very easy to verify it the usual way:
1) First verify it for step functions
2) Use monotone convergence to verify it for positive functions
3) Verify it for general functions using [itex]f=f^+-f^-[/itex].
 
Right; thanks, but I don't know to what extent this simplifies the necessary

calculations in Radon-Nykodim. R-N works, but it just seems long. I thought maybe

there was some corollary to help give it a short proof. Thanks, tho.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
5K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
7K
  • · Replies 104 ·
4
Replies
104
Views
18K
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
5K