Is there a Simple Proof for the Continuity of the Inverse Function?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the continuity of the inverse function \( f^{-1} \) for a one-to-one, continuous function \( f: I \to \mathbb{R} \), where \( I \) is an interval in \( \mathbb{R} \). Participants are exploring the relationship between the continuity of \( f \) and the continuity of its inverse.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish continuity through limit definitions but expresses uncertainty about the approach. Some participants suggest proving that \( f \) is either increasing or decreasing using the intermediate value theorem, while others discuss the implications of the epsilon-delta definition of continuity.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering hints and discussing various approaches. There is no explicit consensus on a single method, but several productive lines of reasoning are being explored, including the use of the intermediate value theorem and epsilon-delta arguments.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the importance of careful definitions and the need to consider the properties of intervals when applying theorems like the intermediate value theorem. There is also mention of the potential complications arising from the continuity definitions in the context of inverses.

CarmineCortez
Messages
30
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Let I be an interval in R, and let f: I-->R be one-to-one, continuous function. Then prove that f^(-1):f(I)-->R is also continuous.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I started a thread yesterday and had some responses but the proofs became quite complicated and my proof ended up wrong, so I tried more basic approach.

So if f is continuous then
limx->af(x) = f(a) now if f-1 is continuous then
limf(x)->f(a)f-1(f(x)) = a
which is equivalent to limf(x)->f(a)x=a
which is true since f is continuous.

Does this make any sense, I'm not really familiar with taking the limit of the domain as the function is changing. Is there any hope for this proof?

Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
any ideas
 
It's not a good idea to start a duplicate thread. You should've just used your previous thread. Anyway, I'll give you more detailed hints this time.

The first order of business is to prove that f is either decreasing or increasing on I. The idea is to use the intermediate value theorem. However, since the IVT only applies to closed and bounded intervals, we need to be a little careful here. Take any two points a<b in I. Since f is one-to-one, then either f(a)<f(b) or f(a)>f(b). Suppose wlog that f(a)<f(b). Now our goal is to prove that f is increasing on I. If c<d are two other points in I, define g:[0,1]->R by

g(t) = f((1-t)b + td) - f((1-t)a + tc).

Why is it natural to look at this? (Draw a picture.) Use the IVT to prove that g>0 for all t. Conclude that f is increasing on I.

Having done this, the continuity of f^(-1) follows easily from an epsilon-delta argument.
 
morphism said:
It's not a good idea to start a duplicate thread. You should've just used your previous thread. Anyway, I'll give you more detailed hints this time.

The first order of business is to prove that f is either decreasing or increasing on I. The idea is to use the intermediate value theorem. However, since the IVT only applies to closed and bounded intervals, we need to be a little careful here. Take any two points a<b in I. Since f is one-to-one, then either f(a)<f(b) or f(a)>f(b). Suppose wlog that f(a)<f(b). Now our goal is to prove that f is increasing on I. If c<d are two other points in I, define g:[0,1]->R by

g(t) = f((1-t)b + td) - f((1-t)a + tc).

Why is it natural to look at this? (Draw a picture.) Use the IVT to prove that g>0 for all t. Conclude that f is increasing on I.

Having done this, the continuity of f^(-1) follows easily from an epsilon-delta argument.

Does the epsilon delta proof use the property f-1(f(x)) = x so

d(x,x_o)<delta and f(x)-f(x_0)<epsilon then for the inverse

f(x)-f(x_0)<epsilon d(f-1(f(x)) -f-1(f(x0)) )=(x-x0)<delta
but what if delta does not equal epsilon...
 
Why are you starting with "d(x,x_o)<delta and f(x)-f(x_0)<epsilon"? We're given an epsilon and we want to find a delta>0 such that |f-1(y) - f-1(y_0)|<epsilon when |y-y_0|<delta.

Of course everything in the domain of f-1 looks like f(something). So we may suppose that y=f(x) and y_0=f(x_0).

Drawing a picture will make the task of finding a suitable delta easier.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K