Is There a Stronger Urysohn Lemma for Banach Spaces?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Urysohn lemma in the context of Banach spaces, specifically addressing the existence of a Urysohn function f: E → [0,1] that satisfies f(x) = 0 if and only if x is in a closed subset A, and f(x) = 1 if x is in another closed subset B. The original poster questions the validity of this assertion without additional assumptions on the Banach space E, A, or B. The strong form of the Urysohn lemma, as referenced from Munkres' topology, clarifies that such a function exists if A and B are disjoint closed G_δ sets in a normal space, which is applicable in metrizable spaces.

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  • Understanding of Urysohn's lemma and its implications in topology.
  • Familiarity with Banach spaces and their properties.
  • Knowledge of normal spaces and G_δ sets.
  • Basic concepts of continuous functions in metric spaces.
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  • Study the strong form of Urysohn's lemma in detail, particularly in the context of normal spaces.
  • Explore the properties of G_δ sets and their significance in topology.
  • Investigate the relationship between metrizable spaces and normal spaces.
  • Review Munkres' topology, focusing on exercises related to Urysohn's lemma.
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Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in topology, functional analysis, and anyone studying properties of Banach spaces and Urysohn's lemma.

quasar987
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Hello all,

I am reading an article and there is something I find odd. The setting is a Banach space E and we have two disjoint closed subsets A and B of E. There is no additional assumption on E, A or B. The author then says,

"Let f:E-->[0,1] be a Urysohn's function such that f(x)=0 if and only if x is in A, and f(x)=1 on B."

But never have I seen a version of Urysohn's lemma that guarantees that f(x)=0 if and only if x is in A.

Does someone have an explanation? (I would ask my advisor but she had gone on vacation for 3 weeks)
 
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In the exercises (exercise 5 on pg. 213) of Munkres' topology he states and asks the reader to prove the following theorem which he refers to as the strong form of the Urysohn lemma:
Let X be a normal space. There is a continuous function f : X \to [0,1] such that f(x)=0 for x \in A, and f(x) = 1 for x\in B, and 0 < f(x) < 1 otherwise, if and only if A and B are disjoint closed G_\delta sets in X.

In a metrizable space every closed set is G_\delta and metrizable spaces are normal so we obtain the corollary:
Let X be a metrizable space. Then there exists a continuous function f : X \to [0,1] such that f(x)=0 for x \in A, and f(x) = 1 for x\in B, and 0 < f(x) < 1 otherwise, if and only if A and B are disjoint closed sets in X.
 
I see, thank you!
 

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