Is there an easy simplification of (n)/(n)?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the simplification of the expression (n!)/(n!) and explores various interpretations and approaches to this mathematical question. Participants engage in technical reasoning, explore factorial properties, and consider implications of even and odd values of n.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the simplification of (n!)/(n!) and asks how it can be demonstrated.
  • Another participant suggests that the simplification depends on whether n is even or odd, but later retracts this statement.
  • Some participants argue that expressing the result in terms of double factorials does not constitute a simplification.
  • There is a humorous exchange about the cancellation of terms in factorial expressions, with one participant suggesting that (n!)/(n!) simplifies to 1.
  • Stirling's approximation is mentioned as a potential approach for large n.
  • Participants discuss the structure of n! for even and odd n, providing detailed breakdowns of the factorial expressions.
  • Clarifications are made regarding the terminology of "double factorial" and its intuitive understanding.
  • One participant expresses confusion about the notation and suggests that the original poster clarify their meaning.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the simplification of (n!)/(n!). Multiple competing views remain regarding the interpretation of factorials and the implications of even versus odd n.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the terminology and the implications of using double factorials. There are also unresolved mathematical steps in the breakdown of factorial expressions for even and odd n.

S.N.
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n!/n! = ?

Hi, I have a quick question that's been bugging me: is there an easy simplification of (n!)/(n!)? And how is is demonstrated?
 
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S.N. said:
Hi, I have a quick question that's been bugging me: is there an easy simplification of (n!)/(n!)? And how is is demonstrated?
Yup. Depends on whether n is even or odd.

Try working it out. The answer will come in terms of another double factorial.

EDIT: My bad, it does not depend on whether n is even or odd.
 
Last edited:


I can hardly call it a simplication if it has another double factorial. I would just say it's another way to write it. It's equivalent.

The obvious answer to something that is equivalent...

(n!-1)!
 


Norman.Galois said:
I can hardly call it a simplication if it has another double factorial. I would just say it's another way to write it. It's equivalent.

Why? We have a factorial and a double factorial and we can reduce it to just a double factorial.

That sounds like simplification to me.
 


:smile:
I laughed when I looked at your original question because I thought to myself:

[tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = ?[/tex] ... that can't be; where does the "?" come from?

It should be [tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = ![/tex] since the "n!" cancels out.

Like this: [tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = \frac{(n!)!}{n!} = \frac{n!}{n!}\times ! = 1\times ! = ![/tex] :rolleyes:
 


zgozvrm said:
:smile:
I laughed when I looked at your original question because I thought to myself:

[tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = ?[/tex] ... that can't be; where does the "?" come from?

It should be [tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = ![/tex] since the "n!" cancels out.

Like this: [tex]\frac{n!}{n!} = \frac{(n!)!}{n!} = \frac{n!}{n!}\times ! = 1\times ! = ![/tex] :rolleyes:

In differential equations class, they had...

[tex]x = \frac{dy}{dx}[/tex]

The student canceled the d's, and then multiplied both sides by x and added "+C". That's [itex]y = x^2 + C[/itex]. Argued his answer was correct and was only missing an insignificant coeficient and should get full marks.
 


Im not a mathemagician. But you could use Stirling's approximation if you assume large n.
 


Norman.Galois said:
In differential equations class, they had...

[tex]x = \frac{dy}{dx}[/tex]

The student canceled the d's, and then multiplied both sides by x and added "+C". That's [itex]y = x^2 + C[/itex]. Argued his answer was correct and was only missing an insignificant coeficient and should get full marks.

That's like
[tex]\frac{sin x}{n}= 6[/tex]
 


Mark44 said:
That's like
[tex]\frac{sin x}{n}= 6[/tex]

Good one! (It took me a while, but I got it!)
 
  • #10


Norman.Galois said:
In differential equations class, they had...

[tex]x = \frac{dy}{dx}[/tex]

The student canceled the d's, and then multiplied both sides by x and added "+C". That's [itex]y = x^2 + C[/itex]. Argued his answer was correct and was only missing an insignificant coeficient and should get full marks.
I know a guy who actually did that on a Calculus Preparedness Exam for our physics class. Wherever there was d/dx, he would just cancel the d's and divide by x.
 
  • #11


Lol, it even kind of works for polynomials, if you commonly ignore coefficients...
 
  • #12


Norman.Galois said:
I can hardly call it a simplication if it has another double factorial. I would just say it's another way to write it. It's equivalent.

The obvious answer to something that is equivalent...

(n!-1)!

Actually it's [itex](n! - 1)![/itex]. You slipped in an extra factorial there. :)
 
  • #13


Char. Limit said:
Lol, it even kind of works for polynomials, if you commonly ignore coefficients...

Hence why the student kept arguing.
 
  • #14


I would hardly call any coefficient insignificant, though.

What's the difference between [tex]x^3[/tex] and [tex]100x^3[/tex]? Only an insignificant coefficient that changes the answer by a factor of 2.
 
  • #15


that is in the simplest possible form
 
  • #16


I mean, you have one variable and 3 of the same operators. What are you hoping for?
 
  • #17


n!=n(n-2)(n-4)... right? I get 1/((n-1)!) just by writing it out and cancelling out.
 
  • #18


madness said:
n!=n(n-2)(n-4)... right? I get 1/((n-1)!) just by writing it out and cancelling out.
Good job. : )
 
  • #19


OH!

I was thinking (n!)!.
 
  • #20


Norman.Galois said:
OH!

I was thinking (n!)!.
I thought the same thing here Norm. Maybe the OP could have explained it's meaning since it's not such a common symbol and easily confused.

Also I must say that I find "double factorial" a very unintuitive name for that function. It should be called "half factorial" IMHO.
 
  • #21


Hey, thanks for the responses. I suppose I should have clarified that I meant the "double factorial" rather than (n!)!.
 
  • #22


Getting back to the original question, if that is permissable, if n is even then n! is n(n-2)(n-4)...(6)(4)(2). If n is odd then n!= n(n-2)(n-3)...(5)(3)(1).

In particular, with n even, n= 2m so that is n!= (2m)!= 2m(2m-2)(2m-4)...(2*3)(2*2)(2*1)= (2m)(2(m-1))(2(m-2)...(2(3))(2(2))(2(1))= 2mm!.

In that case
[tex]\frac{n!}{/n!}= \frac{(2m)!}{(2m)!}= \frac{2^m m!}{(2m)!}[/tex]

If n is odd, n= 2m+1, then n!= (2m+1)!= (2m+1)(2m-1)(2m-3)...(5)(3)(1). We can make that a full factorial by multiplying and dividing by (2m)!:
[tex]\frac{(2m+1)(2m)(2m-1)(2m-2)(2m-3)...(5)(4)(3)2(1)}{(2)!}= \frac{n!}{(2m)!}[/tex]
[tex]= n!\frac{(2m)!}{2^m m!}= \frac{(2m+1)!(2m)!}{2^m m!}[/tex]

and so
[tex]\frac{(2m+1)!}{(2m+1)!}= \frac{(2m)!}{2^m m!}[/tex]
 

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