Is this a complete test to show that a matrix is orthogonal?

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This discussion centers on the properties of orthogonal matrices, specifically the relationship between the equations MT = M-1 and MMT = I. It is established that if a matrix M is orthogonal, then MMT = I implies MT = M-1, but the converse does not hold true. The conversation highlights a significant result in linear algebra: a left-invertible matrix is also right-invertible, and vice versa, which is a critical concept for understanding matrix properties.

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tamtam402
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I used to test orthogonality by using the definition MT = M-1, which means I always calculated the inverse of the matrices. However, isn't it true that if M is orthogonal, then MMT = I?

If we multiply both side by M-1, we get MT = M-1.

Can I use this to proof the orthogonality of a matrix M, instead of calculating it's (often tedious) inverse?
 
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tamtam402 said:
I used to test orthogonality by using the definition MT = M-1, which means I always calculated the inverse of the matrices. However, isn't it true that if M is orthogonal, then MMT = I?

If we multiply both side by M-1, we get MT = M-1.

Can I use this to proof the orthogonality of a matrix M, instead of calculating it's (often tedious) inverse?



Of course...it's exactly the same, right?!

DonAntonio
 
DonAntonio said:
Of course...it's exactly the same, right?!

DonAntonio

This might be a dumb question, but would it be possible to have a matrix M where MMT = I, yet MTM ≠ I? I'm pretty sure that by definition, proving either of these 2 equalities is enough to know that M-1 = MT, but I wanted to make sure.
 
tamtam402 said:
This might be a dumb question, but would it be possible to have a matrix M where MMT = I, yet MTM ≠ I? I'm pretty sure that by definition, proving either of these 2 equalities is enough to know that M-1 = MT, but I wanted to make sure.

That is actually a very good question. There is no reason why MM^T=I should imply M^TM=I.
But this is actually quite a deep result in linear algebra. The result is that every left-invertible matrix is invertible. And likewise with right-invertible.
So if AB=I, then it holds that BA=I. This is a special result that only holds for matrices.
 
micromass said:
That is actually a very good question. There is no reason why MM^T=I should imply M^TM=I.
But this is actually quite a deep result in linear algebra. The result is that every left-invertible matrix is invertible. And likewise with right-invertible.
So if AB=I, then it holds that BA=I. This is a special result that only holds for matrices.


Well, that holds in any group and in any monoid where every element has a right inverse, since then ( with \,a'=\, right inverse of \,a ):
a'a=a'a(a'a'')=a'(aa')a''=a'ea''=a'a''=e
so the right inverse is also the left one.

DonAntonio
 

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